Wed Mar 13 10:04:21 1996

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Subject: James 2:18
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It was stated earlier that James 2:18 reads, in the "Alexandrian" texts
"choris" while in the Maj. text "ek" is the reading.  And, if I understood
the comment correctly, "ek makes no sense here".

My question is- why doesn't it?  Dana and Mantey, in their Grammar, state
that "ek" can be translated "by means of", and they give Rom 1:17, Jas 2:18,
2:22, and I John 4:6 as examples.

"ek" and "choris" are synonymous and thus either one will fit here. 

The variant seems to have arisen because (back to Matthew Black!!!!- but I
don't think he would ever say this!!)  the original James was an Aramaic
document (written about 40 C.E.) and when translated into Greek the scribes
had several options- some chose "ek" while others chose "choris".



Jim West

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