From majordom  Wed Nov 15 17:07:10 1995
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Subject: Itacisms
Date: Wed, 15 Nov 95 13:37:02 CST
From: Mark_O'Brien@dts.edu (Mark O'Brien)
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I haven't seen any mail rolling off this list since I signed up, so I
thought that I would throw a question out there for y'all.

After doing a bunch of collation in Sinaiticus, and noticing the great
multitude of itacisms, I was curious about the theories regarding 
these variants.  What is the concensus out there about how a 
manuscript like Sinaiticus was copied?  Was the scribe following an
oral reading of an exemplar, or was he following a written copy in
front of him?  Most textbooks seem to indicate that itacism was the
result of hearing errors (eg. Metzger), but there seem to be 
indications in Sinaiticus that it was not based on an oral reading of
an exemplar (occurences of haplography and dittography).  Hence my
question:  How do we explain these cases of itacism where there was
no hearing involved?  Was there in fact a stage in the development of
the Greek language where some of these itacisms were in fact the 
correct spellings of words?

I'm just trying to think through these issues and would appreciate
any insights.  Thanks.

Mark O'Brien
Grad. Student, Dallas Seminary
----
"We were put on earth to accomplish a certain number of things.  Right now, I'm
so far behind, I will never die!"

From majordom  Wed Nov 15 17:20:04 1995
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Date: Wed, 15 Nov 1995 15:17:51 -0700 (MST)
From: Charles Miller <malik@unm.edu>
To: tc-list@scholar.cc.emory.edu
Subject: Baptism in Galilee
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I am doing research on baptism "movements" in Galilee during the 3rd 
cent. BCE to 1st cent. CE. I have collected various textual evidence for 
the existence of these movements.

The texts include: Sybilline Oracles 3 & 4; Qumran texts; Josephus; the 
NT; and references to Ebionites and Elechasaites in Epiphanius. The 
question I have is: Joseph Thomas talks about movements; Robert Webb 
talks about movements; but what kind of evidence do we have of the actual 
practice of baptism in this time? Does the evidence point to Mesopotamian 
influences? or is the phenomenon indigenous?

The big question is: what did baptism mean? the same thing for all of 
them? or different things? Compare, for example, what Robert Webb says 
about baptism and its significance in Qumran (basically as a means of 
maintaining cultic purity) and what r. Gray says (maintaining purity in 
order to be able to prophesy). And what does this have to do with Bannus 
or John the Baptist?

Another question is: what relationship does baptism have to do with 
apocalyptic, in the sense of a religious world view?



Charles David Miller		| Reality is not limited to the familiar,
University of New Mexico	| the commonplace, for it consists in huge
(505) 867-1892			| part of a latent, as yet unspoken future
				| Word. -- F. Dostoevskey, _Notebooks_



From majordom  Thu Nov 16 05:01:22 1995
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From: DC PARKER <PARKERDC@m4-arts.bham.ac.uk>
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Date:         Thu, 16 Nov 1995 09:57:05 GMT
Subject:      Re: Itacisms
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 Mark_O'Brien wrote
> 
> After doing a bunch of collation in Sinaiticus, and noticing the great
> multitude of itacisms, I was curious about the theories regarding 
> these variants.  What is the concensus out there about how a 
> manuscript like Sinaiticus was copied?  Was the scribe following an
> oral reading of an exemplar, or was he following a written copy in
> front of him?  Most textbooks seem to indicate that itacism was the
> result of hearing errors (eg. Metzger), but there seem to be 
> indications in Sinaiticus that it was not based on an oral reading of
> an exemplar (occurences of haplography and dittography).  Hence 
my question:  How do we explain these cases of itacism where there 
was no hearing involved?  Was there in fact a stage in the 
development of the Greek language where some of these itacisms 
were in fact the correct spellings of words?
> 
> I'm just trying to think through these issues and would appreciate
> any insights.  Thanks.


I would recommend reading Milne & Skeat, "Scribes & Correctors of 
the Codex Sinaiticus, esp. Ch. VII, 'Orthography & the Dictation 
Theory'.

On Koine Greek, read first F.T. Gignac, "A Grammar of the Greek 
Papyri of the Rom. & Byz. Periods, Vol. 1 Phonology" (Testi e 
Documenti per lo Studio dell'Antichita 55), Milan, n.d. (but about 
1975), and G. Mussies, "The Morphology of Koine Greek as used in 
the Apoc. of St. John", Leiden: Brill, 1971.

 

From majordom  Thu Nov 16 09:19:47 1995
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From: an525@lafn.org (Ivan Ickovits)
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Subject: Re: Baptism in Galilee
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Wan't this Baptisn just the extension of the jewish ritual of subnersion 
in a mikvah -  i.e. ritual purification before the sabbath, or high 
holidays etc.  or general rites of transition for becoming a bar mitzvah 
or marriage, etc.?

>
>I am doing research on baptism "movements" in Galilee during the 3rd 
>cent. BCE to 1st cent. CE. I have collected various textual evidence for 
>the existence of these movements.
>
>The texts include: Sybilline Oracles 3 & 4; Qumran texts; Josephus; the 
>NT; and references to Ebionites and Elechasaites in Epiphanius. The 
>question I have is: Joseph Thomas talks about movements; Robert Webb 
>talks about movements; but what kind of evidence do we have of the actual 
>practice of baptism in this time? Does the evidence point to Mesopotamian 
>influences? or is the phenomenon indigenous?
>
>The big question is: what did baptism mean? the same thing for all of 
>them? or different things? Compare, for example, what Robert Webb says 
>about baptism and its significance in Qumran (basically as a means of 
>maintaining cultic purity) and what r. Gray says (maintaining purity in 
>order to be able to prophesy). And what does this have to do with Bannus 
>or John the Baptist?
>
>Another question is: what relationship does baptism have to do with 
>apocalyptic, in the sense of a religious world view?
>
>
>
>Charles David Miller		| Reality is not limited to the familiar,
>University of New Mexico	| the commonplace, for it consists in huge
>(505) 867-1892			| part of a latent, as yet unspoken future
>				| Word. -- F. Dostoevskey, _Notebooks_
>
>
>
>

--

q

k

From majordom  Thu Nov 16 10:51:30 1995
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Date: Thu, 16 Nov 1995 08:49:10 -0700 (MST)
From: Charles Miller <malik@unm.edu>
To: Ivan Ickovits <an525@lafn.org>
Cc: tc-list@scholar.cc.emory.edu
Subject: Re: Baptism in Galilee
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yOn Thu, 16 Nov 1995, Ivan Ickovits wrote:

> 
> 
> Wan't this Baptisn just the extension of the jewish ritual of subnersion 
> in a mikvah -  i.e. ritual purification before the sabbath, or high 
> holidays etc.  or general rites of transition for becoming a bar mitzvah 
> or marriage, etc.?

I have not heard this theory before. Webb associates the Qumran 
purifications with those that occurred in the Temple. Rebecca Gray talks 
about their relationship to a hypothetical technique for teaching how to 
prophesy. I have not heard of an origin for the purifications performed 
by Bannus and John the Baptist. Some authors do note how *different* 
John's baptism seems to be from Qumran, i.e., a single baptism for the 
forgiveness of sins.

According to Mani's autobiography, the Elchasaites practised daily 
purification--bodily and of their food.

Do you have some sources for this thesis?

> 

Charles David Miller		| Reality is not limited to the familiar,
University of New Mexico	| the commonplace, for it consists in huge
(505) 867-1892			| part of a latent, as yet unspoken future
				| Word. -- F. Dostoevskey, _Notebooks_


From majordom  Thu Nov 16 14:16:32 1995
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Date: Thu, 16 Nov 1995 11:14:14 -0800 (PST)
From: Jim Deardorff <deardorj@ucs.orst.edu>
To: tc-list@scholar.cc.emory.edu
Subject: Gospel priorities & theological commitment
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My present interest in this topic is in reviewing the switch-over in
thought from belief in the Augustinian order (Matthew-Mark-Luke), which
transpired over the extended period from about 1840-1924, and seeing if it
doesn't in fact trace to the theological commitment of the scholars who
dominated the scene then.  This ties in with textual criticism through the
question of whether or not the arguments used to support Mark-Q priority
in the past half century aren't entirely of the "reversible" type, as
opposed to the oral tradition known to Irenaeus, Origen, Augustine (and I
think implied by Papias also) that attested to the Matthew-Mark-Luke 
priority. 

It appears to me that the studies of 19th-century scholars like Eduard
Reuss, Heinrich Ewald, Herman Weisse and Heinrich Holtzmann, culminating
with Burnette Hillman Streeter in 1924, had reached the point where it
became disturbing to their own belief systems, and/or to the church, to
think of the Augustinian order being correct.  Unless the shortest Gospel
came first, it seemed that the writer of Mark had omitted far too much
precious material and Judaisms (Sermon on the Mount, most of the
parables....) to be theologically acceptable.  And if Luke came third, the
editorial behavior of its writer became seen as inexplicable and
theologically unacceptable. 

Even worse, with Matthew first, one sees, upon comparing parallel passages
concerning the disciples, that the writer of Mark while utilizing Matthew
added denigrating touches to the Jewish disciples' characters (as if to
imply that gentiles would make better disciples).  This was unacceptable
to these 19th-century scholars, since the evangelists were supposed to be
of the highest character, if not pipelines from God, and back in the 19th
century the evangelists were still considered to have been the men whose
names are attached to the Gospels.  This was so embarrassing a topic that
one can scarcely find any reference to it in the literature (though
Pierson Parker clearly sets forth these denigrating touches in his article
in William Farmer's "New Synoptic Studies" (1983)).  The topic is perhaps
even more embarassing today, as nowadays the writer of Mark would be
accused of anti-Semitism for such behavior.  This problem was conveniently
disposed of by switching to Mark-Q priority.  Then the writer of Matthew
could be assumed to have added reverential touches to Mark as well as all 
is other added material.

The invention of Q also permitted the assumption of minimal "copying" of 
Gospel text by one evangelist of another, since Luke could then be assumed 
independent of Matthew.  This also supported a theological commitment.

What I see as having happened is that the writer of Matthew, a converted
Jew (once a Pharisee and a scribe), happened to be strongly anti-gentile,
which shows up in numerous spots in his gospel, with the opposite stance
of Mt 28:19 and its Trinitarian-like formula being a much later add-on. It
is then only natural that when a head scribe in the church in Rome read
Matthew and its strong anti-gentile thrust, he felt motivated to write his
own gospel directed towards gentiles.  In likely retaliation to Matthew's
anti-gentile slant, he added small slurs directed against the Jewish
disciples, and omitted many Judaisms and whatever other text and parables
he did not understand or agree with. 
   Shortly after, the writer of Luke (perhaps located in Antioch)
appraised the situation; he apparently agreed with the sentiments of the
writer of Mark, though he felt the need for a more universal gospel.  So
he reinstated into his own gospel much of what the writer of Mark had
omitted from Matthew.  (Thus Q was born.) However, to show his favoritism
for Mark and distaste for Matthew, he closely followed Mark's order of
pericopes and text *wherever it deviated from Matthew*.  (Thus, it is
where the order between Matthew and Mark agree that he introduced his own
material.)  And in so doing, he frequently utilized Matthean text in
whatever order he wished (causing the two different orders of "Q"
material), sometimes utilized it in a different context of his own
choosing, and frequently contradicted Matthew. 

All this seems like rational (though distasteful) behavior on the part of 
the evangelists, and nothing that should be covered up in researching 
Gospel priorities.  Yet, Streeter accused the writer of Luke of having 
been a "crank" if he had behaved in any such way and the writer of Mark 
of having been a "lunatic" if he had abbreviated Matthew.  I see this as 
being Streeter's way of expressing his theological commitment and 
supporting the like commitment of the 19th-century scholars.  Because 
of Streeter's great influence among scholars, I believe such statements 
caused later scholars to buy into the Mark-Q priority hypothesis partly 
in order to avoid being called "cranks" or "lunatics" if they didn't.

The desire to avoid these considerations as applied to Luke appear to me 
to be the basis behind the Griesbachian school of thought 
(Matthew-Luke-Mark) to avoid placing Luke third.  And so it may enter in 
also to arguments that would support Luke coming first.

As to the TC involved, the Augustinian scheme outlined above does well 
explain the minor agreements between Matthew and Luke against Mark, and of 
course supports the large number of studies that have found a dependence 
of Luke upon Matthew and the irreality of Q as a document or collection of 
sayings.  I find that it also supports a comparison of order between 
Matthew against Mark versus Mark against Matthew (there are 
important differences between the two).  

Concerning the numerous and relatively gross redactions evident within
Matthew itself, I find this to be due to the compiler of Matthew, when
preparing his gospel, having before him an extensive text that required
much editing before it would be acceptable to him.  The terse statement
from Papias that survives on this is the chief classical clue supporting
this contention. 

While this group will concentrate on textual criticism, I felt that this 
background was necessary to bring out the many other ties of this topic 
to NT scholasticism.  I welcome discussion on any aspects of this 
hypothesis.  

Jim Deardorff
Oregon State University
deardorj@ucs.orst.edu


From majordom  Tue Nov 21 20:47:06 1995
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Date: Tue, 21 Nov 95 21:27:57 EST
From: kloha@sauron.multiverse.com  (Jeff Kloha)
Reply-To: kloha@sauron.multiverse.com  (Jeff Kloha)
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Members of the tc-list:

I am beginning work on a STM thesis on the text of James. Fresh
collations are being made of the papyri and available uncials.
However, I need a selection of representative minuscules to consult.
The first volumes of the _Text und Textwert_ series analyze the
Catholic Epistles. My question is: While the volumes present
exhaustive studies of relationships among manuscripts in the "test
passages", has any work been published using this data to determine
exactly which manuscripts fall into special groupings? Have the Alands
or their Institut produced any classifications of manuscripts, or have
they simply supplied the data and left individuals to use their own
theories to group manuscripts (e.g., Colwell's multiple readings or
the Profile Method)? 

The paper on "Categories and Text Types" by B. Aland published in the
second ed. of _Text of the New Testament_ simply explains their
classification of mss. into "categories" I, II, III, IV, and V. Is
that as precise as one can get using the "test passages", or can
actual "families" be determined using the _Text und Textwert_ data?

Thank you for your assistance.

Jeff Kloha
Lakewood, OH

kloha@po.multiverse.com



From majordom  Wed Nov 22 15:36:45 1995
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From: broman@Np.nosc.mil (Vincent Broman)
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-----BEGIN PGP SIGNED MESSAGE-----

kloha@sauron.multiverse.com asked about:
> _Text und Textwert_...: While the volumes present
> exhaustive studies of relationships among manuscripts in the "test
> passages", has any work been published using this data to determine
> exactly which manuscripts fall into special groupings?

I have only studied the Acts volumes of TuT, nothing on the epistles yet.
But, as far as I can see, Aland et al have not produced any
MS grouping results from their data beyond the categories I-V seen in TotNT,
and even that categorization is underwhelming.
In Acts, effort was expended to show that Bezae was not closely related to
any miniscule, but results beyond that were not really attempted.
I seem to remember there was a reference in the Acts volume to someone
else's MS classification work in the Catholic Epistles, based on the TuT data,
but I didn't save the reference before returning the book.

>                                                           Is
> that as precise as one can get using the "test passages", or can
> actual "families" be determined using the _Text und Textwert_ data?

The way that MS differences were counted in TuT discarded a large
portion of the significant information that could be extracted from
the collations.  The massive printed tables of MS comparisons
ought to be redone (but not reprinted!) with attention to weighing
differences, instead of just counting them.
My own slogging attempts to better the situation, re Acts, are
slowed by the task of getting data into machine-readable form.

Vincent Broman,  code 786 Bayside                        Email: broman@nosc.mil
Naval Command Control and Ocean Surveillance Center, RDT&E Div.
San Diego, CA  92152-6147,  USA                          Phone: +1 619 553 1641
=== PGP protected mail preferred.  For public key finger broman@np.nosc.mil ===

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From majordom  Fri Nov 24 20:16:20 1995
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Date: Fri, 24 Nov 1995 20:11:54 -0500
From: WesBurt@aol.com
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Cc: WesBurt@aol.com
Subject: #180-7d, Epilog to #180-6
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.****************
On 9 Nov. 1995 the chief programmer for lists BRIDGE-L
 and WISDOM-L  replied to #180-6,  "The No-Fault 
Solution," as follows:

"Wesley,
 Would it be possible to post some excerpts of previous 
posts on other lists to BRIDGE-L?  If not, could you 
briefly summarize your position to allow for greater 
participation. I suspect that the lack of response has less 
to do with "faint-hearted" subscribers than it is due to the 
possibility that you may have launched a salvo right over 
everyone's head." 
******************
What "C" grade mechanical engineer could refuse to
 comply with such a complimentary request?  Bill, the 
"Laws of nature, and of Nature's God" were old and 
unchanging long before Ezra compiled and edited the 
Pentateuch in 457 B.C., after the remnant returned from 
exile in Babylon.  By complying with these laws, the 
American work force from the1620's through the 1890's, 
except during war time, delivered to American 
consumers a "baker's dozen" for each dozen input of 
labor and materials.  When those same Divine 
Laws were not observed during industrialization, the 
performance of the U. S. workforce changed in the 
1890's to delivering only 98% of a dozen for each dozen 
input of labor and materials.

By 1976, 13th tribe members, Harold Van B. Cleveland 
and W. H. Bruce Brittain, knew enough about inflation 
and unemployment to write THE GREAT INFLATION 
(National Planning Association Report No. 148) and 
show the American public that their economy was the 
only one powerful enough to cause the worldwide
inflation that was finally returned to 3%/year in the1990's. 
Since the output lags behind the input, in point of time, in 
every human activity from the family farm to the national 
economy, neither the "Gates of Hell" nor the American 
establishment can eliminate the very human tendency 
toward public deficits and private business failures, 
without first correcting the systemic mechanical defect of
 omission in America's domestic policy. 

The following 1993 snail-mail letter to the late Rabbi 
Eugene J Lipman briefly summarizes the scope of all 
previous snail-mail letters and posts since 1969:
**********************
October 27, 1993
To:  Eugene J. Lipman, Rabbi Emeritus, Temple Sinai, 
and list L

Subject:  #137,  The Zero-Sum Society---34 centuries of 
priestly self-delusion.

Dear Rabbi Lipman:
I only recently had the good fortune to read your YAMIN 
NORA'IM Sinai Sermons, 1987.  We seem to share the 
conviction that members of the American establishment, 
like the Children of Israel, were chosen to teach the 
Mosaic Law to all nations and both refuse to do it. They 
say, one to another: "Moses commanded us a Law for 
our inheritance, it is our inheritance, not theirs."

	From the death of Moses, B.C. 1451, to this 
morning's issue of THE WASHINGTON POST, the 
priestly establishments have regaled the public with
tales of Mighty Men and the exhortations of Patriarchs, 
Prophets, Priests, and Protestants that the public's 
whole duty is to obey the Ten Commandments, obey the 
Golden Rule, pay the three tithes enumerated by TOBIT 
and the late Rabbi J. H. Hertz, and keep its collective 
nose out of the priestly establishment's business.

If Madison, Hamilton, and Jay had explained the attached
 Figure 4 in the Federalist Papers and included the Three
 Tithes of Moses in the Bill Of Rights, as Thomas Paine 
later suggested in AGRARIAN JUSTICE, 1797, the
world today would be calling the U.S.A. "The Promised 
Land," instead of "The Great Satan."

I hope you will forgive this uncultured mechanical 
engineer for basing such a critical presentation on the 
graphical model in Figure 4.  I have neither the wit nor 
the time remaining to surpass the many eloquent authors 
who, over the past 34 centuries, have failed to focus 
public attention on this priestly delusion.

Today, the whole Mosaic Law is applied to Pope John 
Paul II's "society of capital goods" at 90 degrees in the 
model, while Congress applies Tobit's Law to the 
"society of persons" at 270 degrees.  Help me to focus 
public attention on the ZERO-SUM mentality that makes 
Congress: (1) withhold public revenue from First Tithe 
investments in the development of human assets and
the satisfaction of Say's Law, (2) carefully protect the 
Second Tithe for executive compensation of the 
establishment, while (3) busting the budget with futile 
Third Tithe remedial programs for society's underclass.

Sincerely,
Wesley S. Burt
******************
To my great regret, I learned later that Rabbi Lipman 
was terminally ill at the time I found his book of sermons 
and wrote the letter.  Only God knows how he would have 
replied to my letter, if I had found his book of sermons a
few years earlier.

But, I know from recent experience with my e-mail posts 
that this subject evokes the fear, loathing, and hatred of 
discussion list hierarchies who have established their 
lists to promote other objectives than the general welfare 
of the United States.  In a serious way, and very contrary 
to my own interests, I have abused the hospitality of 
those hierarchies that kept their lists open, while at the 
same time, I have felt abused, and my purpose insulted, 
by those hierarchies which closely moderated their lists, 
and rejected my posts as inappropriate to their 
objectives.  After posting this note, I will follow the good 
advice of several founders and list owners and 
un-subscribe from all lists, with sincere apologies to all 
those who have been offended by the subject. 

The burden of making "The No-Fault Solution" politically 
correct is mine, but I need all the help I can get.  The 
acceptance or rejection of the only technically valid cure 
for the social pathologies caused by a century of 5-10% 
unemployment is the public's responsibility, and they 
will need all the help they can get.  But the benefits of 
restoring the American Will to produce a "bakers 
dozen" would be shared by the whole world.

Happy holidays Bill,
Wesley S. Burt
Connoisseur of Fine Cosmographies




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Date: Mon, 27 Nov 1995 11:36:21 +0800 (WST)
From: Timothy John Finney <finney@central.murdoch.edu.au>
To: Jeff Kloha <kloha@sauron.multiverse.com>
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On Tue, 21 Nov 1995, Jeff Kloha wrote:
 
> I am beginning work on a STM thesis on the text of James. Fresh
> collations are being made of the papyri and available uncials.
> However, I need a selection of representative minuscules to consult.
> The first volumes of the _Text und Textwert_ series analyze the
> Catholic Epistles. My question is: While the volumes present
> exhaustive studies of relationships among manuscripts in the "test
> passages", has any work been published using this data to determine
> exactly which manuscripts fall into special groupings? Have the Alands
> or their Institut produced any classifications of manuscripts, or have
> they simply supplied the data and left individuals to use their own
> theories to group manuscripts (e.g., Colwell's multiple readings or
> the Profile Method)? 

James happens to be the book which the Muenster Institut is using as a
test case for its proposed Major Critical Edition. Herr Minke has done a
lot of computer based work to isolate important MSS, such as those you
wish to see. He had a paper (written in German) published in New Testament
Studies in 1993 or 1994 which sets out the basics of his approach. 
Perhaps a letter to the Institut Director, Professorin Barbara Aland,
asking precisely these questions would be in order. 

> 
> The paper on "Categories and Text Types" by B. Aland published in the
> second ed. of _Text of the New Testament_ simply explains their
> classification of mss. into "categories" I, II, III, IV, and V. Is
> that as precise as one can get using the "test passages", or can
> actual "families" be determined using the _Text und Textwert_ data?

No doubt the Texte und Textwort (did I spell that right?) data is the 
best we have so far to work out family relationships. It has been said that 
there is a risk of circular reasoning in the current I, II, III, ... 
classification system. All that can really be said from the data is that 
one MS is like another one. That is, high percentage agreement indicates 
relatedness of MSS. Whether one family is more significant than another 
is a question which must be answered by looking at archtypes of the 
various families once the family boundaries have been delineated.

There is a new technique for reconstructing MS relationships called
cladistic analysis. The new version of Peter Robinson's Collate program is
promised to incorporate a facility to carry out this analysis. Whether
cladistic analysis of NT MS relationships is meaningful remains to be 
seen. The problem is that we have only a small sample of the original
population in the extant MSS. Also, all of the MSS to be analysed must be
transcribed to use the Collate program (a most worthwhile exercise, in my
opinion). 

Tim Finney
Murdoch University
Western Australia

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Date: Mon, 27 Nov 1995 17:47:10 +0100 (MEZ)
From: Klaus Wachtel <wachtel@uni-muenster.de>
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On Tue, 21 Nov 1995, Jeff Kloha wrote:

> 
> I am beginning work on a STM thesis on the text of James. Fresh
> collations are being made of the papyri and available uncials.
> However, I need a selection of representative minuscules to consult.
> The first volumes of the _Text und Textwert_ series analyze the
> Catholic Epistles. My question is: While the volumes present
> exhaustive studies of relationships among manuscripts in the "test
> passages", has any work been published using this data to determine
> exactly which manuscripts fall into special groupings? Have the Alands
> or their Institut produced any classifications of manuscripts, or have
> they simply supplied the data and left individuals to use their own
> theories to group manuscripts (e.g., Colwell's multiple readings or
> the Profile Method)? 

Barbara Aland showed how to use TuT for identifying a group of mss., which
carry the text of the Greek exemplar of the Syra Harclensis of the Catholic
Epistles in

B. Aland: Das Neue Testament in syrischer Ueberlieferung, I.
Die grossen Katholischen Briefe. (Arbeiten zur neutestamentlichen
Textforschung 7) Berlin/NY 1986, p. 41-90.

On the basis of B. Aland's work I developped a method to find groups of mss.
at least as coherent as her group Hk utilizing TuT I:

Klaus Wachtel: Der Byzantinische Text der Katholischen Briefe: Eine
Untersuchung zur Entstehung der Koine des Neuen Testaments. (Arbeiten zur
neutestamentlichen Textforschung 24) Berlin/NY: de Gruyter 1995, p. 56-72.

For a general comparison of the possibilities offered by the TuT volumes
compared to the Claremont profile method see

B. Aland/K. Wachtel: The Greek Minuscule Manuscripts of the New Testament,
in: The Text of the New Testament in Contemporary Research (Festschrift
Metzger), ed. by B.D. Ehrman and M.W. Holmes. (SD 46) Grand Rapids: Eerdmans
1995.

For any questions concerning TuT or the text of James in general feel free
to contact me off list.

Klaus Wachtel, Muenster 
 

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From: Timster132@aol.com
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On Tue, 21 Nov 1995, Jeff Kloha wrote:

> 
> I am beginning work on a STM thesis on the text of James. Fresh
> collations are being made of the papyri and available uncials.
> However, I need a selection of representative minuscules to consult.
> The first volumes of the _Text und Textwert_ series analyze the
> Catholic Epistles. My question is: While the volumes present
> exhaustive studies of relationships among manuscripts in the "test
> passages", has any work been published using this data to determine
> exactly which manuscripts fall into special groupings? 

   For a small book such as James, I can understand your reticence on relying
on profile methods to determine text type.  I'd suggest examining a textual
apparatus or two of James and make a note of how the miniscule mss fall in
line.
   I am sure you will want to consider 33 and 81.

>Have the Alands or their Institut produced any classifications of
manuscripts, 
>or have they simply supplied the data and left individuals to use their own
> theories to group manuscripts (e.g., Colwell's multiple readings or
> the Profile Method)? 

  There is a list of catagories in the Alands'  _The Text of the New
Testament_, pp 156-159, 1987 ed.
    I picked out *some* in the Alands list that I noticed are textual
witnesses in James.  (Look at their book for more info):
 
    Catagory I (Alex): 33, 1241, 1739
    Catagory II/mixed: 81, 323
    Catagory III/independent: 88, 398 (cath), 623, 2495
    Catagory IV/Beza:  none
    Catagory V:  'M'  in text apparatus

  I hope this gets you started or is what you were looking for. 

  Tim Staker
  Timster132@aol.com

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From: "James R. Adair" <jadair@scholar.cc.emory.edu>
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On Tue, 28 Nov 1995 Timster132@aol.com wrote:

>   There is a list of catagories in the Alands'  _The Text of the New
> Testament_, pp 156-159, 1987 ed.
>     I picked out *some* in the Alands list that I noticed are textual
> witnesses in James.  (Look at their book for more info):
>  
>     Catagory I (Alex): 33, 1241, 1739
>     Catagory II/mixed: 81, 323
>     Catagory III/independent: 88, 398 (cath), 623, 2495
>     Catagory IV/Beza:  none
>     Catagory V:  'M'  in text apparatus

The Alands' categorization of witnesses is certainly a good starting
point, but as Larry Richards pointed out in paper presented at the SBL
annual meeting, one cannot assume that every book in a manuscript is of
the same text-type.  The Alands classify witnesses by group of books
(e.g., Acts + catholic epistles), but variation of text-type within a
group of books does occur.  I would think that the categorization of the
minuscules chosen for this study of James should be investigated on a
manuscript by manuscript basis. 

Jimmy Adair
Manager of Information Technology Services, Scholars Press
    and
Managing Editor of TELA, the Scholars Press World Wide Web Site
---------------> http://scholar.cc.emory.edu <-----------------


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From: "James R. Adair" <jadair@scholar.cc.emory.edu>
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The SBL has a section called the "Textual Criticism of the Hebrew Bible" 
section.  Emanuel Tov's book has a similar title.  On the other hand, 
Wuerthwein's book is _The Text of the Old Testament_, and many seminaries 
offer a course called Old Testament Textual Criticism.  What are the 
pros and cons of these terms, and are there better alternatives?

First, though Old Testament is obviously a term derived from the Christian
canon, even many Christian scholars favor the term "Hebrew Bible," in part
because it is less sectarian.  However, when referring to textual
criticism, does this phrase not prejudice the discussion in favor of the
Hebrew _language_ witnesses, especially the MT?  Especially when 
dealing with books that apparently existed in different literary forms 
(e.g., Jeremiah, Samuel, Ezekiel, Job), doesn't "textual criticism of the 
Hebrew Bible" suggest that the form found in the MT be accorded some sort 
of preference (cf. Tov, p. 317)?  And what would textual criticism of the 
book of Tobit be called?

What are the alternatives?  "Textual criticism of the Tanakh" avoids the 
term "Hebrew," and so could presumably refer indifferently to MT or LXX, 
for example, but it stumbles over the differences between the 
Jewish/Protestant and Catholic/Orthodox canons in regard to these books.  
James Sanders and others use the term "First Testament," and "First 
Testament textual criticism" does seem to avoid the problems of Old 
Testament on the one hand and Hebrew Bible or Tanakh on the other.  But 
then aren't we forced to speak of "textual criticism of the Second 
Testament" as well?

I would be interested to see what thoughts others might have on these 
matters of terminology.

Jimmy Adair
Manager of Information Technology Services, Scholars Press
    and
Managing Editor of TELA, the Scholars Press World Wide Web Site
---------------> http://scholar.cc.emory.edu <-----------------



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Date: Thu, 30 Nov 95 07:53 +0200
From: fed@maties.sun.ac.za
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Dear James,
Even though my primer in textual criticism is called WITNESSES TO THE OLD 
TESTAMENT I have come to use the  term "First Testament" throughout 
nowadays:
1. It shows respect for the Jewish faith;
2. It is historically correct: what we find in these books is what came
first;
3. For Christian theology it is a reminder that these texts form PART of the 
Christian BIBLE, and are not te be discarded or underevaluated as "old", 
which suggests pass‚.
4. It avoids the problem of "Hebrew Bible", which is, as you have pointed 
out, too narrow. The First Testament may not or may contain many more books 
than the Hebrew Bible and may refer to the Septuagint, the Peshitta, the 
Targum, etc. 
5. I have no problem with the term Second Testament, even though I know that
New Testament scholars do not really use the term - although the "New 
Testament" may also be too narrow a term to include Apocrypha. But even so, 
should this bother people working with the texts of the First Testament? WE
 have the problem of terminology and solve it the best we can. Is it really
unacceptable to use First Testament AND speak of the New Testament?

Best wishes from the other side of the globe,
Ferdinand Deist
University of Stellenbosch 



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Prof. Deist,

You're up early reading your e-mail!  I appreciate your comments, and I 
would like to post them to the tc-list as a whole, if you will allow me 
to, along with this post.  I, too, have been leaning more toward the term 
First Testament, but this is certainly still a minority position.  I 
personally don't have a problem with the connotations associated with the 
word "Old," since, after all, I have a degree in Ancient Near Eastern 
Studies (Ou Nabye Oosterse Studie)!


From majordom  Thu Nov 30 12:20:33 1995
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Date: Thu, 30 Nov 1995 10:00:36 -0600
From: PFlesher@UWYO.EDU (Paul V. M. Flesher)
Subject: Hebrew Bible, etc.
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I disagree with Prof. Deist that the term "First Testament" shows respect
for the Jewish character of the Hebrew Bible.  To say "First" is to imply
that there is a "second," which those who use the term (primarily
Christians) obviously think is the New Testament.  So the term "First
Testament" is simply another Christian term that ends being parochial with
regard to Judaism.

Personally, I think that there is no good single term.  Instead, "When in
Rome one should do as the Romans do."  That is, if Hebrew Bible is the
subject and will be understood by the audience (Students), use that term.
If not, use Old Testament.  Of course Old Testament is not a clear term
either.  Does it refer to the Protestant OT, the Catholic OT, or some other
version?

Paul

Paul V. M. Flesher
Religious Studies
University of Wyoming
Laramie, WY  82071-3353



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James Adair:
>The SBL has a section called the "Textual Criticism of the Hebrew Bible" 
>section.  Emanuel Tov's book has a similar title.  On the other hand, 
>Wuerthwein's book is _The Text of the Old Testament_, and many seminaries 
>offer a course called Old Testament Textual Criticism.  What are the 
>pros and cons of these terms, and are there better alternatives?
>
In my class on world religions I use the phrase `Jewish Bible'. Is this not
appropriate? Does it not avoid the introduction of new language that needs
to be explained, as in First Testament and Second Testament. 

Richard Corliss
Department of Philosophy
St. Cloud State University
RCorliss@tigger.stcloud.msus.edu


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On Thu, 30 Nov 1995, Richard Corliss wrote:

> In my class on world religions I use the phrase `Jewish Bible'. Is this not
> appropriate? Does it not avoid the introduction of new language that needs
> to be explained, as in First Testament and Second Testament. 

But the OT/Hebrew Bible is also part of the "Christian Bible," so I'm not 
sure this solves the problem.  A term like "biblical textual criticism" 
seems to be good as an umbrella term for both disciplines, since 
"biblical" is sufficiently multivalent (I think) to encompass a variety 
of views of canon.  The problem remains with describing the enterprise of 
examining one of the textual traditions.  Does anyone really want to say 
"textual criticism of the Judeo-Christian scriptures that originated in 
the pre-Christian era"???

Jimmy Adair
Manager of Information Technology Services, Scholars Press
    and
Managing Editor of TELA, the Scholars Press World Wide Web Site
---------------> http://scholar.cc.emory.edu <-----------------

From majordom  Thu Nov 30 14:46:05 1995
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Date: Thu, 30 Nov 1995 14:43:45 -0500
From: Timster132@aol.com
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In a message dated 95-11-28 09:06:30 EST, jadair@scholar.cc.emory.edu (James
R. Adair) writes:

>The Alands' categorization of witnesses is certainly a good starting
>point, but as Larry Richards pointed out in paper presented at the SBL
>annual meeting, one cannot assume that every book in a manuscript is of
>the same text-type.  The Alands classify witnesses by group of books
>(e.g., Acts + catholic epistles), but variation of text-type within a
>group of books does occur.  I would think that the categorization of the
>minuscules chosen for this study of James should be investigated on a
>manuscript by manuscript basis. 

   That would be my advice as well.  The Alands' classification should only 
be a starting point to investigating the relationships of the mss witnesses
of James.

   Tim Staker
   Timster132@aol.com

From majordom  Thu Nov 30 16:55:03 1995
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From: Timster132@aol.com
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In a message dated 95-11-30 12:20:55 EST, PFlesher@UWYO.EDU (Paul V. M.
Flesher) writes:

>I disagree with Prof. Deist that the term "First Testament" shows respect
>for the Jewish character of the Hebrew Bible.  To say "First" is to imply
>that there is a "second," which those who use the term (primarily
>Christians) obviously think is the New Testament.  So the term "First
>Testament" is simply another Christian term that ends being parochial with
>regard to Judaism.

   I agree. It can be understood as supercessionist, the second being an 
improvement on the first.

>Personally, I think that there is no good single term.  Instead, "When in
>Rome one should do as the Romans do." 

   That's why I prefer the term Tanakh.  The term is of Jewish origin, and as
an acronym it embraces the literature we're talking about: the torah, the
prophets and the writings.
   As for Tobit, Wisdom, etc., caling this group the Apocrypha doesn't bother
me.  The Duetero-canonical and Intertestamental have particular positions in
mind, I think.
   And when it comes to the NT, I think New Testament should be ok.  Jewish
scholars understand that we Christians have a New Testament.  I think it may
be acting *hypersensitively* to change it.  ( I may be wrong).
   I've had a tough time coming up with good working alternatives to NT, too.
To call it the Greek Scriptures (as opposed to calling the OT 'the Hebrew
Scriptures') really confuses me, because when I think Greek Scriptures, I
think of the LXX as well.
   I've heard 'Christian writings' for the NT, but then again, the Tanakh is
our
Scripture too.
   Then there's the 'apostolic writings', and that's not bad, but when I hear
it,
I think of the apostolic fathers.  And not all the writers were apostles.

    So, when in inter-faith settings, (such as TC-list)  I'd recommend Tanakh
for 
the OT and New Testament for the NT.  And I wouldn't make it a law, just a 
matter of voluntary ettiquette.

My 2 denarii,

Tim Staker
Timster132@aol.com

