Subject: Is 40:6

From: [email-masked]
Date: Mon, 25 Mar 1996 14:46:58 -0500

I would appreciate any insight as to the most ancient reading of this verse-
in particular whether "amar" should be read; or if the LXX and Vulg. should
be followed and we should read "kai eipa".

This seems to be one of those cases where either reading would make sense in
context; and there seems to be no justification for a scribal alteration in
one direction or another.

And then, the Qumran "a" Isaiah has something which looks to be a
cohortative!

Thanks,

Jim
+++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
Professor of Biblical Languages, CCBI
Petros TN 37845

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From: "James R. Adair" <[email-masked]>
Date: Fri, 29 Mar 1996 01:06:59 -0500 (EST)

Of course the letters W)MR reflect either pf 3ms or impf 1cs, so the 
reading of the LXX doesn't imply any different Vorlage than that found in 
the MT.  The vowel letters of 1QIsa-a suggest a 1cs reading.  I once 
heard James Sanders talk about this verse, and he pointed out that the 
LXX reading here may be more a reflection of the relatively "free" 
translation technique in Isaiah than of the translator's understanding of 
the Vorlage.  Notice that the LXX adds the vocative IEREIS in v. 2, so 
the speaker in v. 6 may be one of the priests referred to earlier.

Jimmy Adair
Manager of Information Technology Services, Scholars Press
    and
Managing Editor of TELA, the Scholars Press World Wide Web Site
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