Subject: Mark 14:72

From: "Maurice A. O'Sullivan" <[email-masked]>
Date: Fri, 28 Jun 1996 15:34:13 +0100

Jim West asked:
>> Could someone please explain to me how D, 565, etc read ERXATO for
EPIBALON at the end of the verse.<<

Perhaps Robert H. Gundry's "Mark" hints at the answer on p.891?

"We do not know for sure what EPIBALWN means.
If it means ' putting [ his cloak ] over [ his head ] ' why the omission of
'his cloak' ( to say nothing about 'his head' cf. 11:7)?. If it means
beginning ( plus a finite verb where English would put an infinitive ), why
does not Mark use his favourite HRCATO, instead [ as in D Q 565 latt
sy(s,p,h) co(sa) goth arm geo]

.............

Thus a good translation would be ' he proceeded to weep '."

So, could it be, Jim, that scribes, altogether better acquainted with Mark's
vocabularly than we are, simply slipped into a familiar verb --- 18 examples
of aorist middle 3rd sg,( 8 of 3rd. pl.)  out of 27 instances of ARXW in Mark ?

Regards,

Maurice

Maurice A. O'Sullivan  [ Bray, Ireland ]
[email-masked]

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