Subject: Re: All or some

From: [email-masked] (Carlton L. Winbery)
Date: Sun, 2 Jun 1996 21:46:51 +0400

Dwight Nelsonwrote;
>TC'ers: This isn't the usual sort of question to end up here, but I'm having
>trouble getting other NT lists to respond to my queries so I figured I'd
>give this list a try- seems that I fall between something and something else
>but no one is quite sure what. If anyone can suggest a list which deals with
>textual problems etc. of a more literary nature, please let me know, as that
>is probably where I belong.
>The question: Does anyone know why it is that in Matthew 28:17b the usual
>translation is 'but some doubted'. The little I've been able to get hold of
>regarding this trans. indicates that the inclusion of 'some' is an exception
>to what would usually be 'but doubted'. Please correct me if I'm wrong, but
>is this a bit of subjectivism/bias on the part of our forebears, or is there
>an explanation outside of someone not wanting all of the disciples to be
>cast in a bad light?
>While from a textual standpoint this may not seem to be much, from a
>homiletical perspective it's one hell of a problem.
>
The article can be used with MEN . . . DE in the sense of an alternative
pronoun.  When in the plural, it can mean "some on the one hand and some on
the other."  On occasion it can be used just with DE in the same way.  The
two examples in the NT cited in the old Thayers lexicon without MEN are
Matt. 26:67 and 28:17.  The using of the plural article with DE indicates
the need for the translation "some."  When the plural article is used in
this way the only thing that you can be sure of is that two or more
participated in the alternative action.

Carlton L. Winbery
Fogleman Professor of Religion
Louisiana College