Subject: Re: Re; Rom 15:19

From: Jim West <[email-masked]>
Date: Thu, 03 Apr 1997 14:28:45 -0500 (EST)

At 01:12 PM 4/3/97 -0500, you wrote:

>In other words, you are saying that the Western or Byzantine are only
>correct when they agree with the Alexandrian -- this therefore basically
>says only the Alexandrian is correct at all times.  Why?
>

Yes.
Because of antiquity, scribal practice (which was far more developed in
Egypt than anywhere else), and reliability (internally and externally).

>I certainly have reasons to defend the Byzantine-priority hypothesis, but
>these are both externally, internally, and transmissionally based.  What
>is the basis for a pure "Alexandrian-priority" schema?
>

Why the same as the reasons one supports the western text or the byzantine.

>_________________________________________________________________________
>Maurice A. Robinson, Ph.D.           Professor of Greek and New Testament
>Southeastern Baptist Theological Seminary     Wake Forest, North Carolina
>~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

Jim

+++++++++++++++++++++++++++++

Jim West, ThD
Adjunct Professor of Bible, Quartz Hill School of Theology
[email-masked]

---

From: "Robert B. Waltz" <[email-masked]>
Date: Thu, 3 Apr 1997 15:21:32 -0700

>Egypt than anywhere else), and reliability (internally and externally).

I think this is good news. Now we have a pure Hortian to attack, along
with Maurice Robinson (pro-Byzantine) and me (pro-everything that isn't
internal evidence). Misery loves company. :-)

-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-

                            Robert B. Waltz
                         [email-masked]

Want more loudmouthed opinions about textual criticism?
Try my web page: http://www.skypoint.com/~waltzmn
(A very rough draft of part of the Encyclopedia of NT Textual Criticism)