Subject: Translation of Lk 1.28

From: Jean VALENTIN <[email-masked]>
Date: Dim, 22 Jun 97 22:20:54 +0200

In Lk 1.28 we find the Greek expression: CHAIRE KECHARITOMENH. I have 
looked at the way KECHARITOMENH is translated in the old versions, and 
there are a few questions I ask myself.

Literally, it is a passive participle : "gratified one", "one to whom 
grace was done/given".

It is a passage where the Syriac and Latin traditions concur in having 
the same translation, which is not literal. My question is: in such a 
case where the Greek text is difficult, and where apparently it seems 
necessary to translate in a non-literal way, what can explain the 
agreement of remote traditions?

syp : shlom lekh, MALYAT TAYBUTHO "peace to you, full of grace"
Both old syriac versions "desunt" for this verse.

lat. vulgate + most old latin mss : have, GRATIA PLENA "Hail, full of 
grace".
The only exceptions in the old latin tradition are:
- d: have benedicta "hail, blessed one" (a different non-literal 
translation).
- q e : ave gratificata "hail, gratified one" (literal transl. of the 
Greek).

Several other witnesses translate in the same way.
In Arabic, the Arabic Diatessaron, the Alexandrian vulgate of the XIIIth 
century and ms Sinai Arabic 122 have equivalent translations to that of 
syp.
Lectionary Sinai Arabic 133 has the same translation: "as-salaam `alayki 
mumtaliyat an-na`mat" which means "the peace on you, the one filled with 
grace". This lectionary is apparented to ms Sin. Arb. 71, but this 
"ancester" has a translation derived from Greek: "IfraHi ya muqaddasat" 
which means "rejoice, o Holy one". "Rejoice" clearly comes from "chaire", 
and "holy one" is probably another embarrassed translation from the 
greek. The shift from the translation of ms 71 to the one of ms 133 can 
be a point in the demonstration that ms 133 comes from a revision using 
the Syriac peshitto.
Other witnesses translating "full of grace" are citations by Ephrem, and 
several Gospel harmonies (persian, latin, dutch, middle english...

Such a translation, not literal but clearly recognizable, probably points 
to a connection between the Latin and the Syriac traditions. I don't want 
to jump too quickly on Tatian, there are may be other possibilities such 
as common translation techniques, common exegetical traditions... I has 
even been suggested that the latin versions had their origins in Antioch: 
Metzger, EVNT, p. 288 mentions this but seems to prefer the explanation 
involving Tatian "bringing Western readings from Rome to the East", but 
readings are not tranlsations... and Metzger adds directly that the most 
probable origin for the Latin versions is North Africa. Is it possible 
that in this last place, there might have been Syriac influences?

To complete the documentation, other versions that DON'T translate in 
that way are:
- the syropalestinian version: shilam lekhi, Hasidtha (peace to you, 
favorized one)
- as I mentioned, Sin. Arb 71 most probably comes directly from Greek.
- in Arabic again, the malkite version of the XIth century (oldest ms: 
Sin. Arb. 69) has: "as-salaam laki, ayyuhaa al-man`am `alayhaa" which is 
to be translated: "the peace to you, o the one upon whom is the grace".
- the sahidic version has "rejoice, the one who found grace". Another 
non-literal translation, showing that the expression is difficult in 
Greek, but a different one from the syro-latin tradition.
- the gothic version: "rejoice, of grace favorized".

_________________________________________________
Jean Valentin - Bruxelles - Belgique
e-mail: [email-masked] /// netmail: 2:291/780.103
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"Ce qui est trop simple est faux, ce qui est trop complexe est 
inutilisable"
"What's too simple is wrong, what's too complex is unusable"
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