Subject: a question in Hebrew Grammar please help

From: "Fred P. Miller" <[email-masked]>
Date: Fri, 06 Jun 1997 15:39:19 -0500

Friends

I hope ths is not an intrusion but I have no Hebrew grammar which covers
the following question.  I would appreciate very much anyone who answers
the question which follows and forgive the intrusion if this letter is
misplaced. 

How does one express a subjunctive idea in a Hebrew verb other than
context?  Is subjunctive tonally expressed by inflection?  Or is there
any grammatical sign as it Greek?   Many find it difficult and translate
what appears to me to be subjunctive as future. For instance Isaiah
32:1 is taken by all to be a messianic reference while I see it as a
subjunctive.  That is: "a king ought to rule in righteousness and rulers
ought to be just so that common people will follow their example and a
society will experience good times as a result of even common people
being bulwarks of spiritual strength and defenders of truth." [whether
the Messiah is present or not.]  I am quite sure that is the mind of the
prophet but unfortunately no translation in English agrees with me and
neither does the LXX or Targum. I would appreciate your input on how a
subjunctive is formed in the Hebrew language.  Is it only certain when
it is vocal?

In other words how does one distinguish should be from shall be?

Thanks very sincerely for your help.
yevarek-ke-ka ha-Shem

Fred P Miller 
-- 
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Fred P Miller
For Bible Study Majoring in Isaiah
http://www.ao.net/~fmoeller
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