Subject: Re: Verbal Agreements -- Can TC or RC explain them?

From: Jean VALENTIN <[email-masked]>
Date: Ven, 29 Ao� 97 02:56:49 +0200

>I do see this as a problem needing consideration, since various scholars
>of the synoptic problem in the past, such as William Farmer, view these
>verbal agreements as proving beyond doubt that Matthew and Luke were not
>written independently.  The assumption is made that the presently accepted
>Gospel text, and that as of a century ago also, are pretty close to the
>truth of how the Gospels appeared within a few decades after being
>written, regarding the presence of these long duplicated strings.  I tend
>to go along with this, but perhaps it places too much reliance upon the
>work of text critics in deducing the present majority text?
>
This is the kind of question I ask myself about work on the Synoptic 
agreements/disagreements - though I have not studied much about this. 
Most of these works, I believe, are made on the basis of the modern 
critical texts which mostly concur with the B-text. What happens if the 
presupposed text is changed for another text closer to D for example, or, 
as you say, a text closer to the Byzantine text ? May be we would hae 
much different theories. Just wondering.

Jean V.

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From: Jim Deardorff <[email-masked]>
Date: Thu, 28 Aug 1997 21:29:13 -0700 (PDT)

> much different theories. Just wondering.

Someone with access to a copy of D could check this out (I think it would
be too awkward to try to check it out just using the critical apparatus of
N-S).  But it's rather time consuming, and after you're finished someone
would suggest you ought to check it out on still another manuscript!

   Jim