Subject: Re: tc-list Peter Katz (Walters)

From: "Matthew Bell" <[email-masked]>
Date: Mon, 20 Apr 1998 22:36:03 +0100

> Since his name was mentioned in a recent post to this list, and since
> traffic on the list has been rather light lately, I'm reminded that I've
> wondered for several years what the story was behind the name change (or
> whatever) from Peter Katz to Peter Walters (he was a LXX scholar). Does
> anybody on the list know? 

MATT BELL
Anyone know of good URL's (email lists) which deal with the origins of the
LXX? 

Thanks
Matt Bell

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From: Jonathan Dixon <[email-masked]>
Date: Tue, 21 Apr 1998 07:38:25 -0300

Does anyone know any of and email lists that deal with the canon and
structure of the Scripture?

Jonathan
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Jonathan M. Dixon
(Student, Atlantic Baptist University)

c/o Atlantic Baptist University
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From: Burkenstock <[email-masked]>
Date: Tue, 21 Apr 1998 17:36:16 -0500

I am currently engaged in a philological and hermeneutical discussion concerning
Ex. 3.14. Can anyone tell me or guide me to some good resources on how to
translate "I am who/what I am". I've got the LXX, Vulgate, and a variety of
English translations, but sadly I don't know Hebrew yet. HELP!!!

philologically bound,
Burke

--
Burke Gerstenschlager
[email-masked]
http://ccwf.cc.utexas.edu/~charis

"I will try to express myself in some mode of life or art as freely as I can and as wholly as I can,
using for my defence the only arms I allow myself to use - silence, exile, and cunning.
        - Stephen Dedalus _A Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man_

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From: Rolf Furuli <[email-masked]>
Date: Wed, 22 Apr 1998 15:28:13 +0200

Burke Gerstenschlager writes

>English translations, but sadly I don't know Hebrew yet. HELP!!!

Dear Burke,

You may want to consult Botterweck/Ringgren, "Theological Dictionary of the
Old Testament, III:369- about hyh.

Three notes on translation:

 (1) The verb hyh in the imperfect (as in Ex 3:14) almost always has future
meaning.  I am aware of only three passages with a possible present
meaning:  Ruth 2:13, Job 12.4 and 17:6. The usual present tense used in
English versions is, from a philological point of view, very strange.

(2) The verb hyh is for the most part not used as copula (linking verb) as
is the Greek EIMI. Illuminating this is the fact that apart from
consecutive forms, hyh occurs 493 times in the OT while EIMI occurs 6469
times in the LXX.

(3) There is no Greek verb corresponding to hyh, and that may be the reason
why hO WN is used in the LXX. When a "dramatic" effect is connected with a
word in the source language but there is no such word in the target
language, modern translators often try to express the effect by another
word in the neigborhood. This may have been the reason why the LXX
translator chose hO WN, because happening and becoming is connected with
hyh rather than just being. A present participle can cover both the present
time and the future, a future participle would just cover the future. The
LXX translator did not manage to convey the right *time* of the verb,
(translation is often compromise) but he chose the best fit, which in his
eyes was hO WN. If this is true, the rendition hO WN can be viewed as a
translation of *both* occurrences of hyh - the "dramatic" effect caused by
both occurrences of the verb is sought conveyed through the present
participle, and EIMI in the LXX clause is just grammatical filling (copula).

Regards
Rolf

Rolf Furuli
Lecturer in Semitic languges
University of Oslo