Subject: tc-list 2 Sam 18:29

From: "Dave Washburn" <[email-masked]>
Date: Thu, 25 Jun 1998 12:24:06 -0700

In 2 Sam 18:29, David asks "Is it well with the boy, with Absalom?"  
The problem is, there's no interrogative-he in the sentence.  BHS 
indicates that several manuscripts "Sebir" this passage to include 
it.  After re-reading Wurthwein, I understand what Sebir means (I 
think), basically indicating that this is an anomaly and showing what 
the "regular" form is.  My question:

Is there any ms. evidence for the reading with the interrogative-he, 
or is this just an unusual form?  What sorts of text-critical 
conclusions have been drawn about this clause?  Any info would be 
helpful.

Dave Washburn
http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
Scholarese, n. A dialect that consists entirely of 
multiverbal circumlocutions and polysyllabic verbiages.

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From: "Franz Schredl" <[email-masked]>
Date: Thu, 25 Jun 1998 17:16:07 -0500

Hi,

Good question. I've just looked at it and it literally is, comparing 
with verses 28 and 32, "Peace!", "It is well!"

Cheers!
Franz