Subject: Re: tc-list Re:Mark 16:9-20

From: "R. David Large" <[email-masked]>
Date: Thu, 22 Oct 1998 20:54:06 -0400

See my comments below ...

-----Original Message-----
From: Robert B. Waltz <[email-masked]>
To: [email-masked] <[email-masked]>
Date: Thursday, October 22, 1998 10:20 AM
Subject: Re: tc-list Re:Mark 16:9-20

[snip]

>>I believe the passage is genuine.
>
>This cries out for a definition of "genuine." There are at least
>three possible meanings: "Part of the original writing," "A work
>of the original author (but not part of *this* work)," and
>"Canonical." It appears that the author of the post means the
>first, but the term needs to be clarified. [snip]

My definition of 'genuine' was delivered within the context of the original
inquiry which addressed (to my understanding) the authenticity of the
passage to Mark's gospel. I apologize for any perceived ambiguity :-)

>It sounds, though, as if the poster is a supporter of the Byzantine
>text.

As Dr. Robinson commented, this is truly irrelevant at his point. There
are no theoretical demands within eclectic text-critical praxis which re-
quire the outright rejection of this passage. In fact, most (to my mind)
take issue with this passage on the front of internal evidence which, as
we are all aware, tends to be argued in as many ingenious ways as the
number of historical facts within reach of the critic's imagination.

>In fact, I have never heard anyone support this passage who
>is not a supporter of the Byzantine text.

I freely admit to have considerable sympathy for many Byzantine readings
though I fail to see how that might apply here (unless, of course, one sees
such admission as either a green light to launch an ad hominem lob or, if
of a particularly warm-blooded temperament, sufficient evidence to ignite
the
fire with which to consume the poor heretic who made it ;-).

> This is perhaps worth keeping in mind.

Why?

1) Because all arguments made by Byzantine supporters can be as summar-
ily dismissed as the readings they favor ...

2) Because only Byzantine supporters possess the unique mental flaws requi-
site to dare peep or mutter a breath in defense of such an (universally
agreed)
indefensible passage ...

3) Because only Byzantine supporters get this doggoned MAD wHeN.....they
fEEL
EVen tHe LEast...biT QUestIoNED by THOSe OF  LESSER ............iNTelIiGence
..........AND..........wISdOm....AAARRRRGGHHHH!!!!!!!$%%#@!@#$$~^%$~&^%

<sigh> ;-)

As to Dr. Robinson's comment on 304, I mentioned it primarily due to its
mention
and description in other standard works as evidence against the passage. The
in-
clusion was intended to prevent the full MS evidence (as I understood it) to
be in-
advertently understated in favor of the passage's inauthenticity, not as a
result of
any personal conviction of its value contra the passage. Your comments are
not-
ed and appreciated :-)

R. David Large
[email-masked]

---

From: [email-masked] (Maurice A. Robinson)
Date: Fri, 23 Oct 1998 17:52:19 EDT

On Thu, 22 Oct 1998 20:54:06 -0400 "R. David Large" <[email-masked]>
writes:

>1) Because all arguments made by Byzantine supporters can be as 
>summarily dismissed as the readings they favor ...

Except of course when the very same arguments are made in favor of the
non-Byzantine reading, in which case they become "lucid" and
"compelling". 
:-)  

>2) Because only Byzantine supporters possess the unique mental flaws 
>requisite to dare peep or mutter a breath in defense of such an
(universally
>agreed) indefensible passage ...

That is it!  I have a mental flaw.  I *knew* there was an explanation
somewhere which might surpass "oddness".  
:-)

>3) Because only Byzantine supporters get this doggoned MAD ....

This point is totally wrong. I actually get only mildly amused. Usually
it is the other side who becomes enraged at pro-Byzantine intransigence. 
:-)

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