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From: "Wieland Willker" <willker@chemie.uni-bremen.de>
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Subject: tc-list Recovering the Invisible?
Date: Thu, 1 Oct 1998 15:59:25 +0100
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There are several methods which allow one to recover bits of otherwise
invisible letters on a papyrus.
I am not familiar with these techniques.
I vaguely remember IR and UV light analyses.
Can someone please point me to any literature on this topic?

Best wishes
    Wieland



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Subject: tc-list Jn 19.30 in the versions
Date: Jeu, 1 Oct 98 22:46:32 +0200
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Dear friends,

A few words about the interpretation of "TETELESTAI" as I notice that =
many versions are paraphrasing this single Greek word in similar ways.

Most of you being English-speaking, they are probably used to the =
quite literal translation of the KJV or other similar versions, "It =
is finished". That is, the verb is translated with an indefinite =
subject.

When I was a little boy, at school we went each week to the mass, =
where the Gospel was read to us in French, and we heard "Tout est =
consomm=E9", that is "Everything is fulfilled". Here there is a =
subject, "everything". I notice now that this translation was current =
in the antiquity and the Middle ages. Here's a little list (probably =
not exhaustive) of what can be found in the versions:

The Latin vulgate and the Syriac peshitto both follow the Greek =
literally like the KJV, quoted above, does. Latin: "Consummatum est" =
(it is fulfilled) and Syriac: "Ho m'shallam" (behold, it is =
fulfilled).

For the moment, I have no vetus latina of John near me, and I'd be =
grateful to anybody who could inform me as to what it says.

--------------

Now to those who read like (or nearly like) the French versions:

Both mss of the old Syriac version are lacunose at this point. We are =
left to deduction from citations and secundary versions.

In Georgian, the Adysh codex has: Qoveli ve arsrulebul ars =
"Everything is perfected/fulfilled".
The later Georgian version of codices ABDE has: esec`a c'erili =
arsrulebul ars "what was written is fulfilled".

The Armenian version (Zohrab edition) has amenayn inch` katareal =EA =
"Everything is fulfilled".

Syropalestinian: Shallam kul medem "Everything is fulfilled".

Arabic - melkite version of the XIth century: qad tumma kullu m=E2 =
q=EEla "Everything that was said is fulfilled"
Arabic Diatessaron : qad kumila kullu shay' "Everything has been =
fulfilled"
Arabic - the alexandrian version (XIIIth century) tumma al-kit=E2b =
"the Book is fulfilled" (may be this one is independent from the =
tradition represented by the other ones, nevertheless it feels the =
need to add a subject).

Dutch Diatessaron : Nu est al voldaen "Now is everything fulfilled"
Pepysian harmony (indirect discourse): Than seide he that al thing =
was fulfild.

----------------

Now several remarks or suggestions:

(1) This all is probably not interesting to those who focus on the =
history of the Greek text alone, since this translation is found only =
in versional witnesses. Nevertheless, it shows us that this is the =
way the text was understood in very early ages, since this =
interpretation is so widely diffused from a geographical point of =
view. It's not a "variant" in the way textual critics who work on the =
Greek text understand that term, but it is a - how should I say that =
- "common interpretative translation" that might help elucidate the =
genealogy of several versions.
(2) Remark number 1 and the fact that it is found both in Eastern and =
western versions make me suspect that the first one to propose this =
interpretation of the text was Tatian in his Diatessaron. I'd be very =
interested to hear the opinion - and further informations - of Dr =
Petersen on this text.
(3) This variant has survived in the text of the French liturgy as I =
remember it from my childhood, but also in the Bible of the French =
protestants, the version of Louis Segond, as it translates: "Tout est =
accompli". Even when protestant Bibles claim they are translated =
directly from the Greek texts, it is never possible to get rid of =
old, diatessaron-influenced, translations that have been popular for =
centuries, and such translations are still alive in the XXth century =
and influence the piety of thousands of people, without them being =
aware of it. Should we call Tatian the Father of all Gospel =
translators?

Thanks for any remarks

Jean Valentin - Brussels

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On Thu, 1 Oct 1998, Jean Valentin wrote:

>Dear friends,

>A few words about the interpretation of "TETELESTAI" as I notice that
>many versions are paraphrasing this single Greek word in similar ways.

>Most of you being English-speaking, they are probably used to the quite
>literal translation of the KJV or other similar versions, "It is
finished". That >is, the verb is translated with an indefinite subject.

>When I was a little boy, at school we went each week to the mass, where
>the Gospel was read to us in French, and we heard "Tout est consomm=E9",
>that is "Everything is fulfilled". Here there is a subject, "everything".
I notice >now that this translation was current in the antiquity and the
Middle ages. >Here's a little list (probably not exhaustive) of what can =
be
found in the >versions:

>The Latin vulgate and the Syriac peshitto both follow the Greek literall=
y
like >the KJV, quoted above, does. Latin: "Consummatum est" (it is
fulfilled) and >Syriac: "Ho m'shallam" (behold, it is fulfilled).

>For the moment, I have no vetus latina of John near me, and I'd be
grateful >to anybody who could inform me as to what it says.


Old Latin MS n (St. Gaul) reads "omnia consummata sunt" at Jn 19.30

>--------------

>Now to those who read like (or nearly like) the French versions:

>Both mss of the old Syriac version are lacunose at this point. We are le=
ft
to >deduction from citations and secundary versions.

>In Georgian, the Adysh codex has: Qoveli ve arsrulebul ars "Everything i=
s
>perfected/fulfilled".
>The later Georgian version of codices ABDE has: esec`a c'erili arsrulebu=
l
>ars "what was written is fulfilled".

>The Armenian version (Zohrab edition) has amenayn inch` katareal =EA
>"Everything is fulfilled".

>Syropalestinian: Shallam kul medem "Everything is fulfilled".

>Arabic - melkite version of the XIth century: qad tumma kullu m=E2 q=EEl=
a
>"Everything that was said is fulfilled"
>Arabic Diatessaron : qad kumila kullu shay' "Everything has been
fulfilled"
>Arabic - the alexandrian version (XIIIth century) tumma al-kit=E2b "the =
Book
is >fulfilled" (may be this one is independent from the tradition
represented by >the other ones, nevertheless it feels the need to add a
subject).

>Dutch Diatessaron : Nu est al voldaen "Now is everything fulfilled"
>Pepysian harmony (indirect discourse): Than seide he that al thing was
>fulfild.

You may want to consult _T. Baarda, In Search of the Diatessaron Text;
idem, Early Transmission of Words of Jesus (edd. J. Heldermann, S.J.
Noorda), Amsterdam 1983, pp. 65-78_. Therein you find some more evidence.

>----------------

>Now several remarks or suggestions:

>(1) This all is probably not interesting to those who focus on the histo=
ry
of >the Greek text alone, since this translation is found only in version=
al
>witnesses. Nevertheless, it shows us that this is the way the text was
>understood in very early ages, since this interpretation is so widely
diffused >from a geographical point of view. It's not a "variant" in the
way textual >critics who work on the Greek text understand that term, but
it is a - how >should I say that - "common interpretative translation" th=
at
might help >elucidate the genealogy of several versions.

It is interesting to cope with the various dimensions of readings that se=
em
to be only versional, but what do you mean by "common interpretative
translation"?  =20
To me the problem should be assessed along the following lines:

1) The reading under discussion is not a variant reading that is found in
the Greek textual transmission to the extend preserved and examined by no=
w.

2) It is found in a great variety of versional sources: However, as far a=
s
I can see all the "eastern" sources (Arabic, Armenian, Georgian) boil dow=
n
to a Syriac origin and all the "western" sources (French, Dutch, German)
boil down to a Latin origin.

3) In case we consider this reading genealogically significant (i.e.,
unlikely to occur several times independently), we have three
possibilities:
a) It was created in Syriac and directly translated into Latin.
b) It was created in Latin and directly translated into Syriac.
c) It was created in Greek and translated into both languages.
Only in a) and b) it were possibly a translational interpretation.=20
In c) it were a Greek gloss that was simply taken over.

4) There is, however, reason to doubt that the reading under discussion i=
s
indeed genealogically significant. It could very well be due to independe=
nt
harmonization to the immediate context (Jn 19.28!).=20

5) Therefore, at least to me the reading is only significant when it come=
s
to support already well established versional genealogies (e.g., the Arab=
ic
Diatessaron is translated from the Syriac). I would hesitate to accept it
as undisputable evidence to bridge the gulf between the Syriac and Latin
versions either directly or by means of a conjectured Greek intermediary
stage.

>(2) Remark number 1 and the fact that it is found both in Eastern and
>western versions make me suspect that the first one to propose this
>interpretation of the text was Tatian in his Diatessaron.=20

Let me add that H. v. Soden (see his edition ad loc.) and D. Plooij (A
Primitive Text of the Diatessaron, Leiden 1923, p. 61) already claimed th=
is
reading for the Diatessaron.=20

Ulrich Schmid

From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Fri Oct  2 07:42:57 1998
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From: "Professor L.W. Hurtado" <hurtadol@div.ed.ac.uk>
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I can recommend a few hrs studying the most recently published 
Oxyrhynchus volumes (64 & 65), which include a number of 
fragments from biblical mss of very early vintage.  Though the 
materials are each only portions of a single page, it is possible to 
identify the biblical passages, and it is often possible to see (or 
surmise by careful restoration) interesting readings.  Six Matt. mss 
date from 2nd through 5/6th cents.; four John mss 3rd cent.; one 
James ms 3rd cent.  
Plus, vol. 65 gives strikingly early LXX mss:  
--#4442=LXX Exod. 20:10-17; 18-22, early 3rd cent. codex
--#4443=LXX Esther E16-9:3, late lst/early 2nd cent CE, roll.
--#4444=WisSol 4:17-51, 4th cent., codex.

These mss give us valuable further information on nomina sacra, 
early readings/variants, and scribal quality and mss characteristics 
of biblical mss of these early cents. (e.g., punctuation, pp. 
numbers, enlarged initial letters, margins, corrections, etc.).


L. W. Hurtado
University of Edinburgh,
New College
Mound Place 
Edinburgh, Scotland EH1 2LX
Phone: 0131-650-8920
Fax: 0131-650-6579
E-mail:  L.Hurtado@ed.ac.uk

From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Fri Oct  2 09:24:28 1998
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>Will someone please look up the meaning of "pou sto"?  I do not have
>reference works with me and I drew a blank when I read the words.

Hm, this looks like Modern Greek:
"pou" can mean 'where' or 'who/which'
"sto" is a contraction of "eis" and "to": a preposition and an article
which must look more familiar to you.


Me timi,

Michalis


dr H.P.S. Bakker

Slavic Seminar
University of Amsterdam
Spuistraat 210
1012 VT Amsterdam

tel. +31 20 525 3811
fax. +31 20 525 3052



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Mark,

Do you ever see any info on the volumes mentioned below?

WWC
----------
>From: "Professor L.W. Hurtado" <hurtadol@div.ed.ac.uk>
>To: tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu
>Subject: tc-list new papyri
>Date: Fri, Oct 2, 1998, 8:42 AM
>

>I can recommend a few hrs studying the most recently published 
>Oxyrhynchus volumes (64 & 65), which include a number of 
>fragments from biblical mss of very early vintage.  Though the 
>materials are each only portions of a single page, it is possible to 
>identify the biblical passages, and it is often possible to see (or 
>surmise by careful restoration) interesting readings.  Six Matt. mss 
>date from 2nd through 5/6th cents.; four John mss 3rd cent.; one 
>James ms 3rd cent.  
>Plus, vol. 65 gives strikingly early LXX mss:  
>--#4442=LXX Exod. 20:10-17; 18-22, early 3rd cent. codex
>--#4443=LXX Esther E16-9:3, late lst/early 2nd cent CE, roll.
>--#4444=WisSol 4:17-51, 4th cent., codex.
>
>These mss give us valuable further information on nomina sacra, 
>early readings/variants, and scribal quality and mss characteristics 
>of biblical mss of these early cents. (e.g., punctuation, pp. 
>numbers, enlarged initial letters, margins, corrections, etc.).
>
>
>L. W. Hurtado
>University of Edinburgh,
>New College
>Mound Place 
>Edinburgh, Scotland EH1 2LX
>Phone: 0131-650-8920
>Fax: 0131-650-6579
>E-mail:  L.Hurtado@ed.ac.uk
>



From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Sun Oct  4 02:22:50 1998
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Subject: tc-list Re: Marya' = YHVH ?
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At 09:33 AM 9/27/98 -0700, you wrote:

>
>
>
>A few days ago there were some posts on this list by Rolf Furuli and James
>Trimm =20
>On the Aramaic word " Marya=92 "  being =3D to "YHVH" as stated in a number=
 of
>Aramaic / Syriac Lexicons.=20
>
>The "Syriac English Dictionary " by Payne Smith states on page 298 ( I have
>a very old copy )=20
>under    " Mara=92 "   =20
> "=85=85.Mara=92 and Marya=92 the latter form is used only of the LORD God=
 and in
>the Peshitta Version of the O.T. represents the Tetragrammaton."
>
>Let=92s take a look at this statement.=20
>The following is a list of verses from the Peshitta=20
>where the Syriac / Aramaic word " Marya=92 " occurs compared with the=
 Hebrew
>and the Greek
>
>Gen 2:4=20
>
>Sy =3D  marya=92 =91alaha=92
>
>MT=3D YHVH Elohim
>
>LXX=3D kurios ho theos
>
>
>Gen 15:2=20
>
>Sy =3D marya=92 =91alaha=92
>
>MT =3D adonai YHVH
>
>LXX =3D despota kurie
>
>
>Jer 1:6
>
>Sy =3D marya=92 =91alaha=92
>
>MT =3D adonai YHVH
>
>LXX =3D despota kurie
>
>
>Eze 2:4=20
>
>Sy =3D marya=92 merutha=92=20
>
>MT =3D adonai YHVH
>
>LXX =3D kurios ( only )
>
>
>Amos 1:8=20
>
>Sy =3D marya=92 merutha=92=20
>
>MT =3D adonai YHVH
>
>LXX =3D kurios ( only )
>
>
>Micah 1:2=20
>
>Sy =3D mara=92 merutha=92 =85=85=85marya=92
>
>MT =3D adonai YHVH=85=85.adonai
>
>LXX =3D kurios kurios kurios
>some =3D kurios ho theos kurios
>
>
>Mal 3:1=20
>
>Sy =3D marya=92
>
>MT =3D haadon
>
>LXX =3D kupios
>
>

Mark,

The examples you site all involve the Hebrew phrase "adonai YHWH" where
admittedly the present text of the Peshitta is affected by various
substitution traditions (or may even reflect textual variants).

You do neem to have found one exception in Mal. 3:1.  Perhaps here also we
have a textual variant.



>>From this short study I do not see a consistent pattern of Marya=92 =3D=
 YHVH in
>the Tanach, even though it is mainly true it is not always true.
>

Mark,

Although there may be some few exceptions, this may also simply reflect
alternate textual traditions.
The exceptions are so few that they are not beyond the margin of error of
the potential for utherwise unknown textual variants.
James Trimm
=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=
=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D
He who seeks will not cease until he finds,
and having found he will be amazed,       =20
and having been amazed he will reign,     =20
and having reigned he will rest.          =20
 - The Goodnews according to the Hebrews  =20
=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=
=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D
The Society for the Advancement of Nazarene Judaism:
PO Box 471; Hurst, TX 76053; USA
http://www.nazarene.net
A nonprofit organization supported by freewill offerings
=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=
=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D
E-mail discusion groups:  Nazarene Judaism; Messianic Judaism;
Yahwism; Lost Tribes; Book of Enoch; Semitic Origin of the=20
New Testament; Prophecy, Sabbatarian & b-Aramaic. =20
Subscribe at: http://www.nazarene.net
=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=
=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D
Essene Forum: Essene website, listserver & links:
http://www.nazarene.net/essene/essene_forum.htm


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THE SEMITIC NEW TESTAMENT PROJECT 
----------------------------------------------------------

The Semitic New Testament project is an ongoing SANJ project to produce a
new and accurate translation of the New Testament taken primarily from old
Hebrew and Aramaic sources.  Unlike most translations this edition will not
be rooted in a Greek Hellenistic text.  This translation will seek to
understand the text of the New Testament from the languages in which it was
originally written.  This is important because there are some passages in
the NT which do not make sense at all in Greek, but only begin to make
sense when we look at them in Hebrew and Aramaic.  For example:

Acts 11:27-30

	And in these days prophets came from Jerusalem to Antioch.  
	Then one of them, named Agabus, stood up and showed by the 
	Spirit that there was going to be a great famine throughout all 
	THE WORLD, which also happened in the days of Claudius Caesar.  
	Then the talmidim, each according to his ability, determined to send 
	relief to the brothers dwelling IN JUDEA.  This they also did, 
	and sent it to the elders by the hands of Barnabas and Saul.

Now this doesn't make sense at all, why would those in Antioch send relief
to those dwelling IN JUDEA if the famine was to strike all THE WORLD.  They
would be facing famine themselves.

The solution lies in the fact that the word for "WORLD" in the Aramaic
manuscripts is A'RA (Strong's #772) the Aramaic form of the Hebrew word
ERETZ (Strong's 776).  This word can mean "world" (as in Prov. 19:4)
"earth" (as in Dan. 2:35) or "land" (as in Dan. 9:15) and is often used as
a euphemism for "The Land of Israel" (as in Dan. 9:6).  Certainly the word
here is not meant to mean "world" but "land of Israel."

Mt. 26:9 = Mk. 14:3

	And when Y'shua was in Bethany at the house of
	Simon the leper,

As any Bible student knows, lepers were not permitted to live in the city
(see Lev. 13:46).  Since ancient Hebrew and Aramaic were written without
vowels, there was no distinction between the Aramaic words GAR'BA (leper)
and GARABA (jar maker or jar merchant).  Since in this story a woman pours
oil from a jar it is apparent that Simon was a jar merchant or jar maker
and not a leper.

Mt. 19:12 & Acts 8:26f

	....there are eunuchs who have made themselves eunuchs for the 	
	Kingdom of Heaven's sake....
	--Mt. 19:12 NKJV
	
	So he [Phillip] arose and went.  And behold, a man of Ethiopia, a 	
	eunuch of great authority under Candace the queen of the Ethiopians,
	who had charge of all her treasury, and had come to Jerusalem to
	worship.
	--Acts 8:27 NKJV

The man in Acts 8:27 appears to be a proselyte to Judaism since he seems to
be making the Torah-required pilgrimage to Jerusalem (Dt. 16:16).  The
Torah, however, forbids a eunuch both from becoming a proselyte Jew, and
from worshiping at the Temple (Dt. 23:1f).  This also raises the question
of why one would become a eunuch (be castrated) for the sake of the Kingdom
of Heaven.  After all eunuchs are excluded from the assembly of Israel.

The word for "eunuch" in the Aramaic manuscripts of both of theses passages
is M'HAIMNA which can mean "eunuch" but can also mean "believer" or
"faithful one" as it clearly means here.

Mt. 19:24 = Mk. 10:25 = Lk. 18:25

	...it is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle
	than for a rich man to enter the Kingdom of God.

The word for "camel" in the Aramaic manuscripts is GAMLA which can mean
"camel" but can also refer to a "large rope," which is certainly the
meaning here.

Mt. 6:22-23 (&Mt. 20:15; Lk. 11:34)

	The lamp of the body is the eye, if therefore your eye is good, 
	your whole body will be full of light.  But if your eye is bad, your 
	whole body will be full of darkness.  If therefore the light that is
	in you is darkness, how great is that darkness!

In Greek and in English this passage is meaningless.  However, in Hebrew
and Aramaic, to have a "good eye" ("single eye" in the KJV) is an idiomatic
expression meaning to be generous.  Having a "bad eye" or "evil eye" is an
idiomatic expression meaning to be stingy.

Rev. 19:17

	Then I saw an angel standing IN THE SUN; and he cried with a loud
	voice, saying to all the birds that fly in heaven, "Come gather together
	for the supper of the great God...

Since ancient Hebrew and Aramaic are written without vowels, B'SHESHA (in
the sun) and B'SHAMESHA (in the service/ministry) are indistinguishable.
Clearly the text here should read "in the service/ministry."

	These are just a few examples of passages from the NT that don't make
sense in Greek and English but only begin to make sense when we look at
them in Hebrew and Aramaic.

Some of the features of the Semitic NT version will be:

	* Religiously neutral language ("immerse" not "baptize"; "assembly" not
"church" etc.)

	* Judaic terminology ("Messiah" not "Christ" etc.)

	* Hebraic renderings of proper nouns ("Yochanan" not "John" etc.)

	* YHWH in the correct places in the text based on manuscript evidence.

	* Very literal renderings.

	* Insights based on the Semitic cultural and linguistic origin of the text.


We plan to soon have some internet samples of this translation out on the net.

This project is supported by freewill offerings.  All contributions are tax
deductible.
Anyone who contributes $20.00 or more will receive a free copy of my book
THE SEMITIC ORIGIN OF THE NEW TESTAMENT as well as a sample of this
translation taken from Ephesians.  If you would like to support this
project just send check or money order made out to "Society for the
Advancement of Nazarene Judaism" with "S.N.T.P." written on the memo line to:

Society for the Advancement of Nazarene Judaism
PO Box 471
Hurst, TX 76053
USA




James Trimm
==============================================
He who seeks will not cease until he finds,
and having found he will be amazed,        
and having been amazed he will reign,      
and having reigned he will rest.           
 - The Goodnews according to the Hebrews   
==============================================
The Society for the Advancement of Nazarene Judaism:
PO Box 471; Hurst, TX 76053; USA
http://www.nazarene.net
A nonprofit organization supported by freewill offerings
==============================================
E-mail discusion groups:  Nazarene Judaism; Messianic Judaism;
Yahwism; Lost Tribes; Book of Enoch; Semitic Origin of the 
New Testament; Prophecy, Sabbatarian & b-Aramaic.  
Subscribe at: http://www.nazarene.net
==============================================
Essene Forum: Essene website, listserver & links:
http://www.nazarene.net/essene/essene_forum.htm


From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Mon Oct  5 07:43:05 1998
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From: "Errol Smith & Colleen Loo" <ERROL.COLLEEN@bigpond.com>
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Subject: tc-list Sheb Tob and Isacc Velasquez
Date: Mon, 5 Oct 1998 21:45:44 +1000
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Some time ago Prof William Petersen informed us of his critique of George Howard's work concerning the Hebrew text of
Matthew contained in the work of the 14th century Shem Tob of Spain. Prof Petersen's article in the latest "New Testament
Studies" journal goes a little further than his first publication in TC earlier this year. in NTS he suggests that Shem Tob
may have used an Arabic translation of the gospels made by Isaac Velasquez of Spain apparently made from an Old Latin source
in about 930 CE. This translation was quite popular in Spain and Morrocco for some time and was a quite plausibly accessable
to Shem Tob. 

Does anyone know if there is any further information on this apparently unpublished Arabic text, or where one may be able to
get a microfilm or photocopy of a ms. So far the only information I have is what I have gleaned from Petersen's article,
Metzger's "Early Versions of the N.T.", and Voobus' "Early Versions of the N.T.".    

With thanks, Errol Smith.


From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Mon Oct  5 10:18:00 1998
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If I may offer a small correction:

The *NTS* article does NOT propose that Shem-Tob used

>an Arabic translation of the gospels made by Isaac Velasquez of Spain 

as Smith put it in his post.  (I am reminded of the first reactions to the
TC article, which interpreted me as arguing that Shem-Tob was dependent
upon the Middle Dutch *Vorlage* of the Liege Harmony...)

Rather, to quote the *NTS* article:

"...has Howard considered the possibility that Shem-Tob might be dependent
upon the same *Vorlage* as that used *in Spain* by Isaac Velasquez *in 946
CE* when he translted the separate gospels into *Arabic*?  Velasquez's
translation has been known for over a century, and more than sixty years
ago Anton Baumstark remarked on the extraordinary fact that this Arabic
translation contained *numerous variant reading which were also found in
the Middle Dutch Liege Harmony.  Baumstark concluded that the ***Latin
separate-gsopel *Vorlage* from which Velasquez worked was *related to the
Western harmoniezed gospel tradition, especially the Middle Dutch
tradition.* ***"  (pp. 494-495)

It is this "Latin separate-gospel *Vorlage* from which Velasquez worked"
which is the presumed link with Shem-Tob--recall the reading "fowl" in Matt
22:4 in both Shem-Tob and the Liege Harmony, which shows that Shem-Tob's
*Vorlage* is almost certainly *LATIN* (TC article, para. 89).

Dependence of Shem-Tob upon a *LATIN* Vorlage is explicitly stated at the
conclusion of my *NTS* article, pp. 510-511:  after pointing out (point 4,
at the top of p. 511) that Velasquez's translation was made from "a Latin
separate-gospel text which had numerous agreements with the Liege Harmony,"
I state (middle of the page) "One is forced to conclude that the *Vorlage*
of Shem-Tob's Hebrew Matthew was a *medieval Latin manuscript of the
separate gospels, whose text had been profoundly influenced by the same
harmonized gospel tradition found in the Middle Dutch family of harmonies.* "

Reading either article and concluding--contrary to the explicit statements
asserting Latin dependence--"that Shem Tob may have used an Arabic
translation of the gospels made by Isaac Velasquez of Spain" means that one
has been reading too quickly.  No statement in either article even remotely
suggests Shem-Tob's dependence upon an Arabic source, of any sort.

Please:  read carefully and accurately.  I go out of my way to *write*
accurately;  I ask my readers to make the same investment.

As to Smith's questions about "further information on this apparently
unpublished Arabic text, or where one may be able to get a microfilm or
photocopy of a ms.":  I have given the bibliographic information in the TC
article:  see Baumstark and Guidi;  one may also consult G. Graf,
*Geschichte der christlichen Arabischen Literatur* (5 vols.;  Vatican,
1944-53), which is the standard work on Arabic Christian literature.  The
manuscripts are in Munich (Staatsbibliothek, as I recall), in Seville
(Cathedral Library), and in Fez (? I am working from memory:  check the
sources).  The Arabist of our NIAS team, Dr. Peter Joosse of Frankfurt, has
obtained microfilms of three or four of the manuscripts (I forget the
precise number), all, of course, in Arabic script.  He is doing preliminary
work on an edition and translation.  Publication (if it ever occurs) will
be many years down the road...  As both the *TC* and the *NTS* articles
indicate, we also have Baumstark's archive, which contains occasional notes
on variants in Velasquez's text.  Dr. August den Hollander (Amsterdam) and
Dr. Ulrich Schmid (Bethel) are the curators of the archive, which is
described in full in the articles.  It is now in Amsterdam.

--Petersen, Penn State University.


At 09:45 PM 10/5/98 +1000, you wrote:
>Some time ago Prof William Petersen informed us of his critique of George
Howard's work concerning the Hebrew text of
>Matthew contained in the work of the 14th century Shem Tob of Spain. Prof
Petersen's article in the latest "New Testament
>Studies" journal goes a little further than his first publication in TC
earlier this year. in NTS he suggests that Shem Tob
>may have used an Arabic translation of the gospels made by Isaac Velasquez
of Spain apparently made from an Old Latin source
>in about 930 CE. This translation was quite popular in Spain and Morrocco
for some time and was a quite plausibly accessable
>to Shem Tob. 
>
>Does anyone know if there is any further information on this apparently
unpublished Arabic text, or where one may be able to
>get a microfilm or photocopy of a ms. So far the only information I have
is what I have gleaned from Petersen's article,
>Metzger's "Early Versions of the N.T.", and Voobus' "Early Versions of the
N.T.".    
>
>With thanks, Errol Smith.
> 

From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Tue Oct  6 14:11:12 1998
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>Date: 4 Oct 1998 19:28:17 -0000
From: "Rev. Craig R. Harmon" <revcraigh@iexpress.net>
To: tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu
Subject: Re: tc-list Semitic NT Project
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> 
> THE SEMITIC NEW TESTAMENT PROJECT 

<SNIP>

Some of the features of the Semitic NT version will be:

* Religiously neutral language ("immerse" not "baptize";

I wonder, given the intensity of the debates between "Immersion only" Church bodies and those which recognize both immersion and sprinkling/pouring, how is replacing "baptize" with "immerse" religiously neutral language?

Just wondering,
Rev. Craig R. Harmon

-----
See the original message at http://www.egroups.com/list/tc-list/?start=4747
--
Free e-mail group hosting at http://www.eGroups.com/


From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Tue Oct  6 15:00:06 1998
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From: "Lamerson, Sam" <SLAMERSON@crpc.org>
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	 <tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu>
Subject: RE: tc-list Semitic NT Project
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Craig, 
	I had that same thought, being a Presbyterian and all.  :-)

Sam Lamerson
Knox Seminary

> -----Original Message-----
> From:	Rev. Craig R. Harmon [SMTP:revcraigh@iexpress.net]
> Sent:	Tuesday, October 06, 1998 2:11 PM
> To:	tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu
> Subject:	Re: tc-list Semitic NT Project
> 
> > 
> > THE SEMITIC NEW TESTAMENT PROJECT 
> 
> <SNIP>
> 
> Some of the features of the Semitic NT version will be:
> 
> * Religiously neutral language ("immerse" not "baptize";
> 
> I wonder, given the intensity of the debates between "Immersion only"
> Church bodies and those which recognize both immersion and
> sprinkling/pouring, how is replacing "baptize" with "immerse"
> religiously neutral language?
> 
> Just wondering,
> Rev. Craig R. Harmon
> 
> -----
> See the original message at
> http://www.egroups.com/list/tc-list/?start=4747
> --
> Free e-mail group hosting at http://www.eGroups.com/

From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Tue Oct  6 15:37:45 1998
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From: "Perry L. Stepp" <plstepp@flash.net>
To: <tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu>
Subject: tc-list Let's let this thread die quickly, please!  (was: Semitic NT Project)
Date: Tue, 6 Oct 1998 14:44:11 -0400
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(Not that I'm the arbiter of good taste or protocol or anything--just a
lowly Ph.D. candidate.)

As interesting as it might be, let's let this debate (BAPTIZW=immerse?) die,
or take it off-list.  It has nothing to do with textual criticism.

Perry L. Stepp

*****************************************************************
Pastor, DeSoto Christian Church, DeSoto TX
Ph.D. Candidate in Religion, Baylor University
#1 Cowboy Fan
Keeper of the Top-10, news://alt.fan.letterman
mail to: plstepp@flash.net

"That depends on what the definition of the word 'is' is."
     --William Jefferson Clinton, 17 August 1998

*****************************************************************


From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Tue Oct  6 15:56:56 1998
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Subject: Re: tc-list Semitic NT Project
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At 02:11 PM 10/6/98 -0400, you wrote:
>> 
>> THE SEMITIC NEW TESTAMENT PROJECT 
>
><SNIP>
>
>Some of the features of the Semitic NT version will be:
>
>* Religiously neutral language ("immerse" not "baptize";
>
>I wonder, given the intensity of the debates between "Immersion only"
Church bodies and those which recognize both immersion and
sprinkling/pouring, how is replacing "baptize" with "immerse" religiously
neutral language?
>

This is pure linguistics.  Greek BAPTIZO and Hebrew T'VILLA literally MEAN
"immersion"  we will use the word "immersion" because it literally
translates the text and does not have the theological baggage that
"baptize" does. 

>Just wondering,
>Rev. Craig R. Harmon
>
>-----
>See the original message at http://www.egroups.com/list/tc-list/?start=4747
>--
>Free e-mail group hosting at http://www.eGroups.com/
>
>
James Trimm
==============================================
He who seeks will not cease until he finds,
and having found he will be amazed,        
and having been amazed he will reign,      
and having reigned he will rest.           
 - The Goodnews according to the Hebrews   
==============================================
The Society for the Advancement of Nazarene Judaism:
PO Box 471; Hurst, TX 76053; USA
http://www.nazarene.net
A nonprofit organization supported by freewill offerings
==============================================
E-mail discusion groups:  Nazarene Judaism; Messianic Judaism;
Yahwism; Lost Tribes; Book of Enoch; Semitic Origin of the 
New Testament; Prophecy, Sabbatarian & b-Aramaic.  
Subscribe at: http://www.nazarene.net
==============================================
Essene Forum: Essene website, listserver & links:
http://www.nazarene.net/essene/essene_forum.htm


From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Tue Oct  6 18:27:46 1998
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Subject: Re: tc-list Jn 19.30 in the versions
Date: Mer, 7 Oct 98 00:35:17 +0200
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To Ulrich Schmid and all those interested in the discussion:

First of all, thank you for the information on the reading of the old 
latin version, as well as for the bibliographical informations!


>
>Old Latin MS n (St. Gaul) reads "omnia consummata sunt" at Jn 19.30
This means we can add this ms to the list of the versions that add the 
subject "everything" to the sentence of Jesus.

>
>You may want to consult _T. Baarda, In Search of the Diatessaron Text;
>idem, Early Transmission of Words of Jesus (edd. J. Heldermann, S.J.
>Noorda), Amsterdam 1983, pp. 65-78_. Therein you find some more evidence.
>
>>----------------
>
>
>It is interesting to cope with the various dimensions of readings that seem
>to be only versional, but what do you mean by "common interpretative
>translation"?   

Sorry for this perhaps strange vocabulary. I mean by this that all these 
translations, or versions have one element in common that is not directly 
translated from Greek, and that needs some process of interpretation 
before it is laid down in their text. Somebody who finds a literal 
translation of the Greek not clear enough for his readers, had probably 
dozens of possible solutions, like adding a subject - and he had the 
choice: he could have written "All that I said to my disciples is 
fulfilled", or "the Law and the Prophets are fulfilled", or "What I came 
to do is fulfilled", or "the salvation of mankind is accomplished". In 
such a case, it is probable that every version of the Gospels would have 
a different subject here, but such is not the case: most of them added 
"everything", though nothing in their Greek text favours that solution 
more than any other. They all interpret, and thus translate or 
paraphrase, in the same way. This is what I try to describe with my 
"common interpretative translation".

When such a thing happens, it attracts my attention and I think I should 
suppose that, if these translators didn't get this directly from the 
Greek text, they nevertheless have a common source which they used in 
translating. In other words: can this coincidence, this agreement of so 
many translators, be simply accidental? Was the source they used a common 
interpretation circulating orally in the Church at that time, was it some 
popular exegesis which circulated in homilies (oral) or in commentaries 
(written)? We can't know, except if we remember that all or nearly all of 
the texts mentioned are known to have some (even far) genealogical 
connection with Tatian.

>To me the problem should be assessed along the following lines:
>
>1) The reading under discussion is not a variant reading that is found in
>the Greek textual transmission to the extend preserved and examined by now.
>
>2) It is found in a great variety of versional sources: However, as far as
>I can see all the "eastern" sources (Arabic, Armenian, Georgian) boil down
>to a Syriac origin and all the "western" sources (French, Dutch, German)
>boil down to a Latin origin.
>
>3) In case we consider this reading genealogically significant (i.e.,
>unlikely to occur several times independently), we have three
>possibilities:
>a) It was created in Syriac and directly translated into Latin.
>b) It was created in Latin and directly translated into Syriac.
>c) It was created in Greek and translated into both languages.
>Only in a) and b) it were possibly a translational interpretation. 
>In c) it were a Greek gloss that was simply taken over.

Until now, I follow you, though I definitely wouldn't prefer c) until one 
can show me that this gloss existed indeed in Greek. Isn't it too easy to 
hypothesize a gloss in a manuscript which nobody has seen? On the other 
hand, the versions I quoted exist, and generally their genealogical links 
with each other and with Tatian's work is accepted.

>
>4) There is, however, reason to doubt that the reading under discussion is
>indeed genealogically significant. It could very well be due to independent
>harmonization to the immediate context (Jn 19.28!). 
I'm not very enthusiastic for this either, because this verse (Jn 19.28) 
speaks of "the Scriptures" and not of "everything". This last seems to be 
a creation ex-nihilo, or at least simply from the need of making a phrase 
with a subject other than a too indefinite one like "it".

>
>5) Therefore, at least to me the reading is only significant when it comes
>to support already well established versional genealogies (e.g., the Arabic
>Diatessaron is translated from the Syriac). I would hesitate to accept it
>as undisputable evidence to bridge the gulf between the Syriac and Latin
>versions either directly or by means of a conjectured Greek intermediary
>stage.

I agree with you, it's not "evidence" except when cumulated with the rest 
of the evidence, which you and the team of Dr Petersen master much more 
than I do!

>
>>(2) Remark number 1 and the fact that it is found both in Eastern and
>>western versions make me suspect that the first one to propose this
>>interpretation of the text was Tatian in his Diatessaron. 
>
>Let me add that H. v. Soden (see his edition ad loc.) and D. Plooij (A
>Primitive Text of the Diatessaron, Leiden 1923, p. 61) already claimed this
>reading for the Diatessaron. 

Ulrich, thanks again for the information!

Jean V.




_________________________________________________
Jean Valentin - Bruxelles - Belgique
e-mail: jgvalentin@arcadis.be
_________________________________________________



From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Wed Oct  7 08:36:42 1998
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From: "Thomas J. Kraus" <thomas-juergen.kraus@theologie.uni-regensburg.de>
Organization: Universitaet Regensburg
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Dear Wieland,
*invisible* letters have always been a problem for papyrologists. Just 
remember Tischendorf=B4s go on Codex Ephraemi Syri rescriptus applying  
Gioberti=B4s tincture (ammonium hydrosulphid) to it and by that intensifyi=
ng 
some of the ingredients of the ancient ink while destroying some of the 
other material (Ephraem=B4s text and the parchment as well).
You mentioned IR and UV. They only help in specific cases depending on the=
 
material and the faintness (ingredients) of the lettes. Never mind, they 
were a straight leap forward.
Of course, microscopes are improving and they help a lot (nevertheless, 
the *konfokales Laserrastermikroskop*, which C.P. Thiede claims to hold a 
patent on,  remains a riddle to me; no patent office could give me any 
further information about such a thing, and Thiede ...). There are good 
opportunities to identify blots and traces of ink, if you make a 
high-quality photo of your fragment, digitalize it (almost the same step),=
 
and try to reproduce it with applicable software or printers (you lose a 
massive amount of quality by that).
Have you heard of the new procedure called *Mondo nuovo*? Specific 
photographies of one and the same manuscript are digitalized only carrying=
 
the spectral colours in all ranges from infrared to ultraviolet light, 
digitalized, and then the diverging colours on the many photographies are 
brought together by the new software (also called *Mondo nuovo*). The 
software was developed by scholars in Bologna and Parma and is applicable 
for parchment only (as far as I know). Recently, some newspaper articles 
mentioned it (DIE ZEIT, no. 30, 16 july 1998, page 34; SZ, no. 171, page 
V2/9). But a digitalized page of a parchment codex will cost about 1,000 
pounds sterling!
For other computerizing procedures consult:
A. Lange, Computer aided text-reconstruction and transcription. 
CATT-manual, Tuebingen 1993.
A. Lange, Computer aided text-reconstruction (CATT) developed with the 
Dead Sea Scrolls, in: New Qumran texts and studies. Proceedings of the 
First Meeting of the International Organization for Qumran Studies, Paris 
1992, StTDJ 21, Leiden-New York-Cologne 1994, pp. 223-232.
With a main focus on reconstructing fragmented texts:
I.A. Moir, S. Michaelson and A.Q. Morton, Scriptures. The Use of Computers=
 
for Fragment Location, in: ZPE 17, 1975, 119-124.
Concentrating on the restauration of manuscripts:
H. Harrauer, Bericht =FCber das 1. Wiener Symposium fuer 
Papyrusrestaurierung, Wien 1985.

I hope that this is of any help for you and that my `messy=B4 confusing 
writing isn=B4t any problem. Sorry, I do not remember any further specific=
 
literature dealing with your issue.

Best wishes, good luck,
Thomas


Universit=E4t Regensburg
Kath.-theol. Fakult=E4t
Universit=E4tsstr. 31
D-93053 Regensburg

Tel. + 49 941 943 36 90
Fax. + 49 941 943 19 86
thomas-juergen.kraus@theologie.uni-regensburg.de

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From: Jim Deardorff <deardorj@ucs.orst.edu>
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Subject: tc-list Mt 23:26
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I came across a peculiarity here that perhaps someone can explain. The
phrase KAI THS PARAYIDOS, or "and of the plate," is listed by N-A 27 as
being supported by aleph, B and others, but is left out of the text. Yet
its ms support seems stronger, does it not, than for omitting it. Did
ordinary logic, then, play a role here, in that it does not make very much
sense to speak of a plate having an interior?

Jim Deardorff
Oregon State University
http://www.proaxis.com/~deardorj


From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Wed Oct  7 11:30:11 1998
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From: "Ulrich Schmid" <schmiul@uni-muenster.de>
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Subject: Re: tc-list Jn 19.30 in the versions
Date: Wed, 7 Oct 1998 17:27:35 +0200
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On Wed, 7 Oct 1998, Jean Valentin wrote (in part):

[quoting Schmid]
> >It is interesting to cope with the various dimensions of readings that
seem
> >to be only versional, but what do you mean by "common interpretative
> >translation"?   
> 
> Sorry for this perhaps strange vocabulary. I mean by this that all these 
> translations, or versions have one element in common that is not directly

> translated from Greek, and that needs some process of interpretation 
> before it is laid down in their text. Somebody who finds a literal 
> translation of the Greek not clear enough for his readers, had probably 
> dozens of possible solutions, like adding a subject - and he had the 
> choice: he could have written "All that I said to my disciples is 
> fulfilled", or "the Law and the Prophets are fulfilled", or "What I came 
> to do is fulfilled", or "the salvation of mankind is accomplished". In 
> such a case, it is probable that every version of the Gospels would have 
> a different subject here, but such is not the case: most of them added 
> "everything", though nothing in their Greek text favours that solution 
> more than any other. They all interpret, and thus translate or 
> paraphrase, in the same way. This is what I try to describe with my 
> "common interpretative translation".

Thanks for clarification. 
 
> When such a thing happens, it attracts my attention and I think I should 
> suppose that, if these translators didn't get this directly from the 
> Greek text, they nevertheless have a common source which they used in 
> translating. In other words: can this coincidence, this agreement of so 
> many translators, be simply accidental? Was the source they used a common

> interpretation circulating orally in the Church at that time, was it some

> popular exegesis which circulated in homilies (oral) or in commentaries 
> (written)? We can't know, except if we remember that all or nearly all of

> the texts mentioned are known to have some (even far) genealogical 
> connection with Tatian.
[...]

>On the other 
> hand, the versions I quoted exist, and generally their genealogical links

> with each other and with Tatian's work is accepted.

This is to the very heart of the problem. Quite frankly I have some trouble
tracing back the exact genealogical links between the "western" witnesses
(Old Latin n, Dutch Harmonies, French Bible Translations, etc.) and
Tatian's work. In order to establish that connection much more work needs
to be done. Remember, the mentioned texts are (except for OL n) all
medieval products of the 13th century onwards. Two absolutely crucial
pieces of evidence are hitherto almost completely unexplored:
a) the history of the Latin gospel texts from the 10th century onwards and
b) the history of the Latin Harmony tradition.

As long as these studies are lacking the connection of "western" texts with
Tatian is faint. At least one thing is clear to me: The classic studies of
Vogels and Plooij that tried to establish certain connections are highly
questionable.  
 
[quoting Schmid]
> >4) There is, however, reason to doubt that the reading under discussion
is
> >indeed genealogically significant. It could very well be due to
independent
> >harmonization to the immediate context (Jn 19.28!). 
> I'm not very enthusiastic for this either, because this verse (Jn 19.28) 
> speaks of "the Scriptures" and not of "everything". This last seems to be

> a creation ex-nihilo, or at least simply from the need of making a phrase

> with a subject other than a too indefinite one like "it".

John 19:28 VULGATE reads: 
  postea sciens Iesus quia iam >omnia< consummata sunt ut consummaretur
scriptura dicit sitio. 
Therefore, I can't accept your point.
 
Ulrich Schmid



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On Wed, 7 Oct 1998, Jim Deardorff <deardorj@ucs.orst.edu> wrote:

>I came across a peculiarity here that perhaps someone can explain. The
>phrase KAI THS PARAYIDOS, or "and of the plate," is listed by N-A 27 as
>being supported by aleph, B and others, but is left out of the text. Yet
>its ms support seems stronger, does it not, than for omitting it. Did
>ordinary logic, then, play a role here, in that it does not make very much
>sense to speak of a plate having an interior?

The official explanation for this variant in the UBS commentary is:

   The weight of external evidence appears to support the longer
   text. At the same time the presence of AUTOU (instead of
   AUTWN) in B* f13 28 al seems to be a hint that the archetype
   lacked KAI THS PAROYIDOS. On balance, there is a slight
   probability that the words were inserted by copyists from
   ver. 25.

(Note: I had, obviously, to transliterate the accented lower-case
Greek of the Commentary.)

The committee labelled this a D decision in both the fourth and
fifth editions, meaning that they really don't know what the
original text is.

Looking solely at the external evidence, I incline, very slightly,
to agree with them. This reading is clearly that of the "Caesarean"
witnesses, and all the other types are split. At least, that's
my top-of-the-head reaction; if I looked at it in more detail, I
might well change my mind. :-)

-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-

                        Robert B. Waltz
                     waltzmn@skypoint.com

Want more loudmouthed opinions about textual criticism?
Try my web page: http://www.skypoint.com/~waltzmn
(A site inspired by the Encyclopedia of NT Textual Criticism)



From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Wed Oct  7 13:53:11 1998
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From: "William L. Petersen" <wlp1@psu.edu>
Subject: Re: tc-list Recovering the Invisible? (Imaging techniques)
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It might be worth point out that the Eastman Kodak company used to have a
series of professional "handbooks" on infrared photography and UV
photography.  They were available at a nominal price (each was 30 pp. or
so), and were done with a commercial goal in view:  to encourage the sale
of IR film and UV etc. filters.

Twenty-five years ago, when I wrote to the FBI about advanced photography
techniques for detecting faint MS writing, they directed me to Kodak...so
if it's good enough for them...

Digitizing (and chromatic and "angle" recording of images, which are then
"digitally" reassembled) have surpassed--to the best of my knowledge--the
traditional photographic techniques.  Some of this has been done with parts
of the Dead Sea materials.

--Petersen, Penn State Univ.
Cheers!  --Bill.

WLP1@psu.edu
865-7773

From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Wed Oct  7 14:29:47 1998
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Date: Wed, 7 Oct 1998 14:30:55 -0400
From: Mike Bossingham <MikeBossingham@compuserve.com>
Subject: Re: tc-list Recovering the Invisible?
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Hi,

I saw on TV here in the UK, some work done by the
British Library on the Beowolf manuscript. They managed
to recover text in almost impossible conditions

It may be worth contacting them.

Regards

Mike Bossingham
Maidenhead

From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Wed Oct  7 16:27:42 1998
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Subject: Re: tc-list Jn 19.30 in the versions
Date: Mer, 7 Oct 98 22:35:16 +0200
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>John 19:28 VULGATE reads: 
>  postea sciens Iesus quia iam >omnia< consummata sunt ut consummaretur
>scriptura dicit sitio. 
>Therefore, I can't accept your point.

Thanks for underlining - I think I read that text too quickly the other 
day (I must have been tired :-). So OK for the theoretical possibility of 
an independent harmonization with vs. 28, like you say. It should indeed 
be considered. I would accept it as the most likely solution were there 
only a few witnesses to it. But here, there's a massive agreement of so 
many different texts that I prefer a genealogical connection. But you are 
right to examine all the possibilities, and this is one.

Jean V.


_________________________________________________
Jean Valentin - Bruxelles - Belgique
e-mail: jgvalentin@arcadis.be
_________________________________________________



From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Wed Oct  7 19:10:36 1998
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A new discussion list associated with __Hugoye: Journal of Syriac
Studies__ [http://www.acad.cua.edu/syrcom/Hugoye] is being formed. This
list is intended for scholars with interest in Syriac studies in all its
aspects. Discussions are intended to be of academic and scholarly
nature.

If you are interested in joining this group, please email me off-line.
Please write in the subject line "Hugoye-List", and (unless you know
that I know you) please indicate in the message:
   1. Your interests in Syriac studies briefly (1 line would do), and
   2. Your affiliation.

George Kiraz
Hugoye General Editor

-- 
                           \_\_\_\_\_\_\_  George Anton Kiraz, Ph.D.
\_\_\_            \_\_\_\_  \_    \_      Language Modeling Research
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From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Thu Oct  8 09:07:54 1998
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>On Wed, 7 Oct 1998, Jim Deardorff <deardorj@ucs.orst.edu> wrote:
>
>>I came across a peculiarity here that perhaps someone can explain. The
>>phrase KAI THS PARAYIDOS, or "and of the plate," is listed by N-A 27 as
>>being supported by aleph, B and others, but is left out of the text. Yet
>>its ms support seems stronger, does it not, than for omitting it. Did
>>ordinary logic, then, play a role here, in that it does not make very much
>>sense to speak of a plate having an interior?
>
>The official explanation for this variant in the UBS commentary is:
>
>   The weight of external evidence appears to support the longer
>   text. At the same time the presence of AUTOU (instead of
>   AUTWN) in B* f13 28 al seems to be a hint that the archetype
>   lacked KAI THS PAROYIDOS. On balance, there is a slight
>   probability that the words were inserted by copyists from
>   ver. 25.
>
>(Note: I had, obviously, to transliterate the accented lower-case
>Greek of the Commentary.)
>
>The committee labelled this a D decision in both the fourth and
>fifth editions, meaning that they really don't know what the
>original text is.
>
>Looking solely at the external evidence, I incline, very slightly,
>to agree with them. This reading is clearly that of the "Caesarean"
>witnesses, and all the other types are split. At least, that's
>my top-of-the-head reaction; if I looked at it in more detail, I
>might well change my mind. :-)

I wonder also if Luke 11:39 might have influenced a scribe or the tradition
behind both Luke and Matt (maybe Q?). In Luke there a different word for
plate, TOU PINAKOS. Perhaps someone will also straighten out the fact that
in Luke, they are commanded to give those dirty things inside the cup for
alms.


Carlton L. Winbery
Fogleman Professor of Religion
Louisiana College
Pineville, LA 71359
winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net
winbery@andria.lacollege.edu




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For advanced photographic methods applied to the Dead Sea Scrolls and 
(if I remember) a major manuscript of the Hebrew Bible contact the 
Ancient Biblical Manuscript Center in Claremont, California, USA.
I'm sorry not to have a better address; the Center has an 
international reputation as a repository of photographs of DSS and  biblical 
material, so a reference librarian can provide what I cannot.
  Vinton A. Dearing

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Well, I made a mistake on this thread. I see that I wrote

>>The committee labelled this a D decision in both the fourth and
>>fifth editions, meaning that they really don't know what the
>>original text is.

That first sentence should, of course, have read 

The [UBS] committee labelled this a D decision in both the THIRD and
FOURTH editions.

Guess I'm expecting an upsurge in inflation again. :-)

-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-

                        Robert B. Waltz
                     waltzmn@skypoint.com

Want more loudmouthed opinions about textual criticism?
Try my web page: http://www.skypoint.com/~waltzmn
(A site inspired by the Encyclopedia of NT Textual Criticism)



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Query for the cognoscenti:  would anyone care to share an opinion about G.
M. Hahneman, THE MURATORIAN FRAGMENT AND THE DEVELOPMENT OF THE CANON
(Oxford: Clarendon, 1992), in which he suggests redating the Muratorian
Canon to the Fourth Century?  I'll reserve my own comments for now.  Thanks,
Rod Mullen


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At 09:51 PM 10/8/98 -0400, you wrote:
>Query for the cognoscenti:  would anyone care to share an opinion about G.
>M. Hahneman, THE MURATORIAN FRAGMENT AND THE DEVELOPMENT OF THE CANON
>(Oxford: Clarendon, 1992), in which he suggests redating the Muratorian
>Canon to the Fourth Century?  I'll reserve my own comments for now.  Thanks,
>Rod Mullen

I've read it about two years and was persuaded that the late second century
is not the best dating for the Muratorian Canon.

Stephen Carlson
--
Stephen C. Carlson                        mailto:scarlson@mindspring.com
Synoptic Problem Home Page   http://www.mindspring.com/~scarlson/synopt/
"Poetry speaks of aspirations, and songs chant the words."  Shujing 2.35

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Subject: Re: tc-list muratorian canon
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	Hahneman's work, though it is difficult to follow at times, does deal with
the issue at hand--strengthening the case for a late fourth-century date
and an eastern provenance designation of the fragment.  Nevertheless one of
his weaknesses from the outset is his overstatement regarding the
Muratorian fragment to canon study.  As such, he does not demonstrate why a
later date necessitates a revised canon history toward a more gradual
process, but instead his own dating of the Muratorian canon seems to be
predicated upon this gradual process of canon formation.  Still other
weaknesses do occur.  His argumentation is largely based on speculative
postulations rather than concrete demonstrations about the contents of the
fragment.  Nowhere does he demonstrate a peculiarity or other aspect of the
fragment that absolutely requires a fourth century dating.  When he does
attempt to offer a concrete characteristic, he erroneously concludes that
the fragment is completely synonymous to the other fourth century
catalogues.  In fact, the lists in the fourth century catalogues are just
that, lists.  The Muratorian list, comparatively, is an expanded or
apologetic commentary.  What is more, Hahneman's dating is questionable
since he so quickly accepts Sundberg's translation of nuperrime that is at
best a mere plausible choice.  In fact, Hahneman does not offer a critique
of the traditional view that the reference is in fact not about the
Shepherd of Hermas and Pius, but the Muratorian fragment and Pius.
Hahneman rightly identifies the need to view the canon process as gradual,
but over emphasizes the distinction between canon and scripture in
reference to the fourth-century.  In the end, Hahneman's conclusion appears
plausible and his argumentation is good, but at the same time his own
rejection of traditional conclusions offers little reason to completely
accept his position thereby leaving readers cynical towards all positions
concerning the Muratorian fragment.  When one considers the abrupt ending
and beginning of the fragment, cynicism towards conclusive remarks about
the fragment might be a good position to maintain.

At 09:51 PM 10/8/98 -0400, you wrote:
>Query for the cognoscenti:  would anyone care to share an opinion about G.
>M. Hahneman, THE MURATORIAN FRAGMENT AND THE DEVELOPMENT OF THE CANON
>(Oxford: Clarendon, 1992), in which he suggests redating the Muratorian
>Canon to the Fourth Century?  I'll reserve my own comments for now.  Thanks,
>Rod Mullen
>
>
>


From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Thu Oct  8 23:26:31 1998
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>Date: 7 Oct 1998 22:40:30 -0000
From: "Rev. Craig R. Harmon" <revcraigh@iexpress.net>
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At 02:11 PM 10/6/98 -0400, you wrote:
> 
> This is pure linguistics.  Greek BAPTIZO and Hebrew T'VILLA literally MEAN
> "immersion"  we will use the word "immersion" because it literally
> translates the text and does not have the theological baggage that
> "baptize" does. 

I may get back to you about the meaning of BAPTIZO and T'VILLA later. At the moment, I only wish to suggest that the word "immersion" carries it's own theological baggage and is nowhere near being theologically neutral.

Just my oppinion, of course.
Craig R. Harmon

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From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Thu Oct  8 23:27:39 1998
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>Date: 7 Oct 1998 22:46:34 -0000
From: "Rev. Craig R. Harmon" <revcraigh@iexpress.net>
To: tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu
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(Not that I'm the arbiter of good taste or protocol or anything--just a
> lowly Ph.D. candidate.)
>

I'll take your word for it (being an even lowlier STM student) that this question of mine was in bad taste (on this list at least). I apologize (mea culpa) for responding again; I had not yet read your call for the immediate death of the thread. You have heard the last of me on the topic.

Craig R. Harmon 
> As interesting as it might be, let's let this debate (BAPTIZW=immerse?) die,
> or take it off-list.  It has nothing to do with textual criticism.
> 
> Perry L. Stepp
> 
> *****************************************************************
> Pastor, DeSoto Christian Church, DeSoto TX
> Ph.D. Candidate in Religion, Baylor University
> #1 Cowboy Fan
> Keeper of the Top-10, news://alt.fan.letterman
> mail to: plstepp@flash.net
> 
> "That depends on what the definition of the word 'is' is."
>      --William Jefferson Clinton, 17 August 1998
> 
> *****************************************************************
> 
> 
> 



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From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Fri Oct  9 07:34:16 1998
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On  7 Oct 98 at 21:44, Carlton Winbery wrote:

> I wonder also if Luke 11:39 might have influenced a scribe or the tradition
> behind both Luke and Matt (maybe Q?). In Luke there a different word for
> plate, TOU PINAKOS. Perhaps someone will also straighten out the fact that in
> Luke, they are commanded to give those dirty things inside the cup for alms.

On the first point, the IQP's Critical Text of Q 11.39b reads THS PAROYIDOS 
with Matthew rather than TOU PINAKOS with Luke.  I am interested by the 
suggestion that Q might have influenced a scribe of Matthew (if I read the 
words above correctly) -- on what grounds could one establish the likelihood of 
that?

On the second point, it seems more likely that Luke 11.41 is referring to the 
inner Pharisee than to the inner cup.  Turner suggests that one take TA ENONTA 
as an adverbial accusative, thus TA ENONTA DOTE ELEHMOSUNHN will mean something 
like "Give alms inwardly", a theme with a clearly Lukan character and 
paralleled not far away in 12.33-34. Thus we should probably see Luke 11.41as a 
Lukan redaction of the saying found in Q  (so Tuckett and Kloppenborg) or 
Matthew (so Goulder).

Mark
--------------------------------------
Dr Mark Goodacre       mailto:M.S.Goodacre@bham.ac.uk
  Dept of Theology                Tel: +44 (0)121 414 7512
  University of Birmingham      Fax: +44 (0)121 414 6866
  Birmingham  B15 2TT
  United Kingdom

Homepage: http://www.bham.ac.uk/theology/goodacre
World Without Q: http://www.bham.ac.uk/theology/q  

From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Fri Oct  9 10:28:23 1998
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From: "Ulrich Schmid" <schmiul@uni-muenster.de>
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Subject: Re: tc-list Mt 23:26
Date: Fri, 9 Oct 1998 16:25:38 +0200
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On Fri, 9 Oct 1998, Mark Goodacre wrote:
 
> On  7 Oct 98 at 21:44, Carlton Winbery wrote:
> 
> > I wonder also if Luke 11:39 might have influenced a scribe or the
tradition
> > behind both Luke and Matt (maybe Q?). In Luke there a different word
for
> > plate, TOU PINAKOS. Perhaps someone will also straighten out the fact
that in
> > Luke, they are commanded to give those dirty things inside the cup for
alms.
> 
> On the first point, the IQP's Critical Text of Q 11.39b reads THS
PAROYIDOS 
> with Matthew rather than TOU PINAKOS with Luke.  I am interested by the 
> suggestion that Q might have influenced a scribe of Matthew (if I read
the 
> words above correctly) -- on what grounds could one establish the
likelihood of 
> that?

No way! Assimilation to the immediate context (Mt 23.25) seems the most
likely explanation (if I read the words above correctly).

Ulrich Schmid

From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Fri Oct  9 13:38:42 1998
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At 09:51 PM 10/8/98 -0400, Rod Mullen wrote:
>Query for the cognoscenti:  would anyone care to share an opinion about G.
>M. Hahneman, THE MURATORIAN FRAGMENT AND THE DEVELOPMENT OF THE CANON
>(Oxford: Clarendon, 1992), in which he suggests redating the Muratorian
>Canon to the Fourth Century?  I'll reserve my own comments for now.  Thanks,
>Rod Mullen
>

My review of the book is in CBQ 56 (1994) 594-5.  The last lines of it read:
"H. has rightly highlighted the problematic character of the traditional
dating, but nothing he has presented eliminates it or requires a later
dating.  His own case for a fourth-century date is just as problematic; in
support of it he offers many possibilities and some probabilities, but
nothing more certain than the case for the traditional date.  The book, well
written and engagingly presented, leaves this reviewer skeptical of all
dates sugested for the MC, but of H.'s more than of the traditional one."

Mike Holmes
Bethel College


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        Several Semitic versions of New Testament books have come down to
us which may have some claim to being decendants of the original Semitic
text.  These include the Shem Tob and Du Tillet Hebrew versions of Matthew;
the Old Syriac Aramaic version of the four Gospels; The Peshitta Aramaic
New Testament and the Crawford Aramaic version of Revelation.
        The DuTillet Hebrew version of Matthew is taken from a Hebrew
manuscript of Matthew which was confiscated from Jews in Rome in 1553.  It
was brought to Paris by Bishop DuTillet and placed at the Biblioteque
Nationale where it remains to this day as Hebrew ms. mo. 132.  Both Hugh
Schonfield and George Howard have stated that an ancestor of this Hebrew
text underlies our current Greek text.  Schonfield writes:

	...certain linguistic proofs... seem to show that the Hebrew
	text [DuTillet] underlies the Greek, and that certain
	renderings in the Greek may be due to a misread Hebrew
	original.
        	(An Old Hebrew Text of St. Matthew's Gospel; 1927, p. 17)

        The Shem Tob Hebrew version of Matthew was transcribed by Shem Tob
Ben Yitzach Ben Shaprut into his apologetic work Even Bohan sometime around
1380 C.E.  While the autograph of Shem Tob's Even Bohan has been lost,
several mss. dating between the fifteenth and seventeenth centuries still
exist.  George Howard states of the Shem Tob version of Matthew:

	 ...an old substratum to the Hebrew in Shem Tob is a prior
	composition, not a translation.  The old substratum, however,
	has been exposed to a series of revisions so that the present
	text of Shem-Tob represents the original only in an impure
	form.
	(The Gospel of Matthew according to a Primitive Hebrew Text; 1987;p.223)

	It might appear from the linguistic and sociological
	background to early Christianity and the nature of some
	theological tendencies in Shem-Tob's Matthew that the
	Hebrew text served as a model for the Greek. The present
	writer is, in fact, inclined to that position.
	(ibid p. 225)

	Shem-Tob's Matthew... does not preserve the original in a pure
	form.  It reflects contamination by Jewish scribes during the
	Middle Ages.  Considerable parts of the original, however,
	appear to remain...
	(Hebrew Gospel of Matthew; 1995; p. 178

        In addition to the Hebrew versions of Matthew we also have an
Aramaic version of the Four Gospels known as the Old Syriac.  Two
manuscripts of this version have been discovered dating back to the 4th
century.  The firstwas discovered by Dr. William Cureton in 1842.  The
second was discovered by Mrs. Agnes Smith Lewis in 1892.  After making his
profound discovery, Dr. Cureton studied the Old Syriac text in detail.  He
concluded that at least
the version of Matthew found in the Old Syriac has its basis in the Orginal
Semitic text and was not merely at translation from the Greek.  Cureton
published his findings to the world saying:

	...this Gospel of St. Matthew appears at least to be built upon
	the orginal Aramaic text which was the work of the Apostle
	himself.
	(Remains of a Very Ancient Recension of the Four Gospels in Syriac; 1858;
p. vi)

In my book the Semitic Orgin of the New Testament I show
edivence that this is true of the whole of the Old Syriac.
        The Peshitta New Testament is the Aramaic version of the New
Testament which has been preserved by the Church of the East (mentioned
above).  It includes all of the books except 2Peter; 2John;  3John; Jude
and Revelation.  These books were not canonized by the Church of the East
until 508 C.E..  The Peshitta is not merely a translation from the Greek
text, but rather a revision of the Old Syriac, as Arthur Voobus writes:
"... the Peshitta is not a translation, but a revision pf an Old Syriac
version." (Studies in the History of the Gospel Text in Syriac; 1951; p. 46
see also pp. 54-55).

The Crawford Aramaic version of Revelation is a very rare, little known
version. 
How the ms. made its way to Europe is unknown.  What is known is that th ms. 
was purchased by the Earl of Crawford around 1860.  In his possession it
became 
catalogued Earl of Crawford's Haigh Hall, Wigin, no. 11.  It has since been
placed 
at the John Rylands Library.  Concerning the variants of this version John
Gwyn 
Writes:

	Two or three... are plausible readings; and might well be
	judged worthy of adoption if there were any ground for
	supposing the Apocalypse to have been originally written,
	or to be based on a document written, in an Aramaic idiom.
	(The Apocalypse of St. John in a Syriac Version Hitherto Unknown; 1897; p.
lxxix)

Several scholars have proposed an Aramaic or Hebrew original for this book.

       James Scott Trimm

For further reading the following two books are currently available:
					THE SEMITIC ORIGIN OF THE NEW TESTAMENT
					by James Scott Trimm
					Available from:
					Heb/Aram NT Research Inst
					PO Box 471
					Hurst, TX 76053

					HEBREW GOSPEL OF MATTHEW
					by George Howard
					Mercer University Press
					6316 Peake Rd.
					Macon, GA 31210-3960


James Trimm
==============================================
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and having found he will be amazed,        
and having been amazed he will reign,      
and having reigned he will rest.           
 - The Goodnews according to the Hebrews   
==============================================
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From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Mon Oct 12 17:16:20 1998
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From: "Steve & Jules Carson-Rowland" <kirra@powerup.com.au>
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Subject: tc-list OT scripture
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I am sorry if this is a little off-topic. It it is and anyone can help with
the question please reply to me off list.

In Book 2 of 'Against Apion', Josephus writes:
'..for, says the Scripture, "A woman is inferior to her husband in all
things." '

(This is the internet version of Against Apion. My library doesn't have the
Loeb Classic of this work, but the numbering of this reference in the
internet version is Book 2:25.)

Can anyone identify this scripture? If it is not in the canonical OT, does
this impact on Josephus' view of the canon of the OT which he explains in
Against Apion. (I checked Feldman's 'Josephus and Modern Scholarship:
1937-1980' but no mention was made of this particular quotation).

Regards,

Steve Carson-Rowland
Queensland, Australia


From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Mon Oct 12 18:18:42 1998
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Subject: Re: tc-list OT scripture
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On Tue, 13 Oct 1998, "Steve & Jules Carson-Rowland" <kirra@powerup.com.au>
wrote:

>I am sorry if this is a little off-topic. It it is and anyone can help with
>the question please reply to me off list.
>
>In Book 2 of 'Against Apion', Josephus writes:
>'..for, says the Scripture, "A woman is inferior to her husband in all
>things." '
>
>(This is the internet version of Against Apion. My library doesn't have the
>Loeb Classic of this work, but the numbering of this reference in the
>internet version is Book 2:25.)

Can you check that number? I'm looking in the Loeb Josephus, and
AA 2:25 is about the Sabbath, not the relations between a woman
and her husband.

Is it possible that this should be II.ii.5, or some such? If not,
can you give us a larger quotation to work from?

Bob Waltz
waltzmn@skypoint.com

"The one thing we learn from history --
   is that no one ever learns from history."



From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Mon Oct 12 19:40:21 1998
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Steve & Jules Carson-Rowland wrote:

> In Book 2 of 'Against Apion', Josephus writes:
> '..for, says the Scripture, "A woman is inferior to her husband in all
> things." '

In the Kregel publication of the Whiston text (at 2:25), probably the text on
the Internet (the text is the same), there is a footnote that says: "This text
is nowhere in our present copies of the Old Testament."

In answering the first of your questions, it leaves the second unaddressed.

Bernard Taylor



From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Tue Oct 13 17:43:06 1998
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On Tue, 13 Oct 1998, "Steve & Jules Carson-Rowland" <kirra@powerup.com.au>
wrote:

>I am sorry if this is a little off-topic. It it is and anyone can help
with the question please reply to me off list.
>
>In Book 2 of 'Against Apion', Josephus writes:
>'..for, says the Scripture, "A woman is inferior to her husband in all
things." '
>
>(This is the internet version of Against Apion. My library doesn't have
the Loeb Classic of this work, but the numbering of this reference in the
internet version is Book 2:25.)

Bob Waltz
Can you check that number? I'm looking in the Loeb Josephus, and AA 2:25 is
about the Sabbath, not the relations between a woman
and her husband.

Is it possible that this should be II.ii.5, or some such? If not, can you
give us a larger quotation to work from?

STEVE CR
It is approx 2/3 of the way through book 2. That section (in the internet
version) begins with:



From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Tue Oct 13 17:44:51 1998
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From: "Steve & Jules Carson-Rowland" <kirra@powerup.com.au>
To: <tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu>
Subject: Re: tc-list OT scripture
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On Tue, 13 Oct 1998, "Steve & Jules Carson-Rowland" <kirra@powerup.com.au>
wrote:

>I am sorry if this is a little off-topic. It it is and anyone can help
with the question please reply to me off list.
>
>In Book 2 of 'Against Apion', Josephus writes:
>'..for, says the Scripture, "A woman is inferior to her husband in all
things." '
>
>(This is the internet version of Against Apion. My library doesn't have
the Loeb Classic of this work, but the numbering of this reference in the
internet version is Book 2:25.)

Bob Waltz
Can you check that number? I'm looking in the Loeb Josephus, and AA 2:25 is
about the Sabbath, not the relations between a woman
and her husband.

Is it possible that this should be II.ii.5, or some such? If not, can you
give us a larger quotation to work from?

STEVE CR
It is approx 2/3 of the way through book 2. That section (in the internet
version) begins with:

[oops, hit the wrong key last time and sent an unfinished version...]

25. But, then, what are our laws about marriage? That law owns no other
mixture of sexes but that which nature hath appointed, of a man with his
wife, and that this be used only for the procreation of children. But it
abhors the mixture of a male with a male; and if any one do that, death is
its punishment. It commands us also, when we marry, not to have regard to
portion, nor to take a woman by violence, nor to persuade her deceitfully
and knavishly; but to demand her in marriage of him who hath power to
dispose of her, and is fit to give her away by the nearness of his kindred;
for, says the Scripture, "A woman is inferior to her husband in all
things."...


Steve Carson-Rowland
Queensland, Australia



From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Tue Oct 13 19:22:31 1998
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On Wed, 14 Oct 1998, "Steve & Jules Carson-Rowland" <kirra@powerup.com.au>
wrote:

>25. But, then, what are our laws about marriage? That law owns no other
>mixture of sexes but that which nature hath appointed, of a man with his
>wife, and that this be used only for the procreation of children. But it
>abhors the mixture of a male with a male; and if any one do that, death is
>its punishment. It commands us also, when we marry, not to have regard to
>portion, nor to take a woman by violence, nor to persuade her deceitfully
>and knavishly; but to demand her in marriage of him who hath power to
>dispose of her, and is fit to give her away by the nearness of his kindred;
>for, says the Scripture, "A woman is inferior to her husband in all
>things."...

OK. For what it is worth, this is section #24 in the Loeb version,
not #25. But the cause of the confusion is that the #24/25 is
not the Loeb numbering system; it's the classical system. The
Loeb numbers for this section are I.199-203. (For what it's
worth.)

So with that said, here is what the Loeb edition reveals (BTW,
this is section 201 in the Loeb edition.)

The Greek text reads

  gunh ceirwn, fhsin, andros eis apanta. toigaroun upakouetw,
  mh pros ubrin, all an archtai* qeos gar andri to kratos edwken.

This whole passage is in brackets. There is no manuscript
evidence for the omission, but the note on the Greek side
says "Passage suspected by Niese; cf. Ephes. v.22 and other
N.T. parallels."

On the English side, the translation reads

  The woman, says the Law, is in all things inferior to the man.
  [etc.]

The note attributes the quotation to Gen. 3:16. Doesn't look
much like the LXX to me -- but what do I know? :-)

Bob Waltz
waltzmn@skypoint.com

"The one thing we learn from history --
   is that no one ever learns from history."



From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Wed Oct 21 15:23:38 1998
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Subject: tc-list FW: Mark 16:9-20
From: Blue Skies White Stars <blufunk195@tidalwave.net>
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--> 
--> Hello everyone,
--> 
--> I just subscribed, so I might be either late or early on the topic- I
know
--> Mark 16:9-20 has probably been hashed and re-hashed on here, so I'll
keep my
--> question easy--- I'm presently studying TC independently (so many
resources
--> available nowadays) and on my apologetics listserve, we're having a
--> discussion about the Marcan passages in question as to their
authenticity. 
--> One person on a related list (which is discussing the topic concurrently
--> with my list) brought up Dean Burgon. I'm quite familiar with Metzger,
but
--> aside from surface info, don't know much about Burgon. I was referred to
--> Burgon's 'The Last Twelve Verses of Mark' and given the impression that
--> modern TC makes a mistake about asterisks/obeli in the mss which contain
the
--> longer ending (9-20) and that the passages are marked with a cross (?)
and
--> designated authentic. Metzger, on the other hand, brings up several
points
--> (which I concur with) for marking the passages as unauthentic (Text of
the
--> NT, pp. 226-29).
--> 
--> Looking for references and general info that anyone more educated can
give
--> me on the subject. Thanks!!
--> 
--> 
--> Kerry Gilliard
--> Director/Founder
--> W.I.T.N.E.S.S. Ministries
--> http://tidalwave.net/~blufunk195
--> 1 Peter 3:15, Jude 3
--> Director of Music
--> Open Bible Baptist Church
--> 410-488-4646
--> personal site: http://zpbstimes.org/webmaster
--> "There are two types of people-those searching for truth and those
searching
--> for an excuse not to believe---which are you?"- Kerry Gilliard, 1993
-->  



From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Wed Oct 21 16:13:49 1998
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Date: Wed, 21 Oct 1998 15:55:25 +0000
From: Jim West <jwest@Highland.Net>
Subject: Re: tc-list FW: Mark 16:9-20
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At 01:49 AM 10/21/98 +0000, you wrote:
>
>
>--> 
>--> Hello everyone,

Gee- it might just be me- but is ther any way you can leave off the dashes
and arrows which begin every line of your text, please, if possible.

And hello to you.

>--> Mark 16:9-20 

[snipped]

>--> Looking for references and general info that anyone can
>give
>--> me on the subject. Thanks!!

There is absolutely no doubt that the long ending of Mark is secondary and
was not a part of the earliest document.  A brief glance at the textual
evidence will show that it is LATE, late, late!!!!!!

You may want to consult any modern (i.e., written in the last half century
of so) commentary on the Gospel of Mark, like that of Eduard Schweizer, or
even better, Rudolf Pesch.

The long ending (as it is called) is preserved by various parties because
their treasured text is based on late, virtually worthless (so far as being
useful in recovering the earliest readings of any NT document), Byzantine
manuscripts.

Best,

Jim

+++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
Adjunct Professor of Bible- Quartz Hill School of Theology
Pastor- Petros Baptist Church

jwest@highland.net



From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Wed Oct 21 17:07:43 1998
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From: "Kevin W. Woodruff" <cierpke@utc.campus.mci.net>
Subject: Re: tc-list FW: Mark 16:9-20
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Kerry:

I personally don't think that Mark 16:9-20 should be included, but too often
the textual evidence is dismissed too quickly. Codex Alexandrinus, Codex
Ephraemi Rescriptus and Codex Bezae all have the passage. Irenaeus (120-202
A. D.) quotes the passage so it must be quite old


At 01:49 AM 10/21/98 +0000, you wrote:
>
>
>--> 
>--> Hello everyone,
>--> 
>--> I just subscribed, so I might be either late or early on the topic- I
>know
>--> Mark 16:9-20 has probably been hashed and re-hashed on here, so I'll
>keep my
>--> question easy--- I'm presently studying TC independently (so many
>resources
>--> available nowadays) and on my apologetics listserve, we're having a
>--> discussion about the Marcan passages in question as to their
>authenticity. 
>--> One person on a related list (which is discussing the topic concurrently
>--> with my list) brought up Dean Burgon. I'm quite familiar with Metzger,
>but
>--> aside from surface info, don't know much about Burgon. I was referred to
>--> Burgon's 'The Last Twelve Verses of Mark' and given the impression that
>--> modern TC makes a mistake about asterisks/obeli in the mss which contain
>the
>--> longer ending (9-20) and that the passages are marked with a cross (?)
>and
>--> designated authentic. Metzger, on the other hand, brings up several
>points
>--> (which I concur with) for marking the passages as unauthentic (Text of
>the
>--> NT, pp. 226-29).
>--> 
>--> Looking for references and general info that anyone more educated can
>give
>--> me on the subject. Thanks!!
>--> 
>--> 
>--> Kerry Gilliard
>--> Director/Founder
>--> W.I.T.N.E.S.S. Ministries
>--> http://tidalwave.net/~blufunk195
>--> 1 Peter 3:15, Jude 3
>--> Director of Music
>--> Open Bible Baptist Church
>--> 410-488-4646
>--> personal site: http://zpbstimes.org/webmaster
>--> "There are two types of people-those searching for truth and those
>searching
>--> for an excuse not to believe---which are you?"- Kerry Gilliard, 1993
>-->  
>
>
>

Kevin W. Woodruff, M.Div.
Library Director/Reference Librarian
Cierpke Memorial Library
Tennessee Temple University/Temple Baptist Seminary
1815 Union Ave. 
Chattanooga, Tennessee 37404
United States of America
423/493-4252 (office)
423/698-9447 (home)
423/493-4497 (FAX)
Cierpke@utc.campus.mci.net (preferred)
kwoodruf@utkux.utcc.utk.edu (alternate)
http://web.utk.edu/~kwoodruf/woodruff.htm


From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Wed Oct 21 17:35:42 1998
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Subject: tc-list Re:Mark 16:9-20
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On Wed, 21 Oct 1998 15:55:25 +0000 Jim West <jwest@Highland.Net> writes:
>At 01:49 AM 10/21/98 +0000, you wrote:

>>--> Mark 16:9-20 

>There is absolutely no doubt that the long ending of Mark is secondary 
>and was not a part of the earliest document.  A brief glance at the 
>textual evidence will show that it is LATE, late, late!!!!!!

[snip]

>The long ending (as it is called) is preserved by various parties 
>because their treasured text is based on late, virtually worthless (so
far as 
>being useful in recovering the earliest readings of any NT document), 
>Byzantine manuscripts.

Although I am too preoccupied to get into a debate over the long ending
of Mark, I am somewhat at a loss over the rhetoric and invective in Jim's
message. Something better than a misleading diatribe would be preferable.


Why not simply note that among the extant Greek MSS there are only two
which actually omit the passage (the somewhat interrelated Alexandrian
witnesses Sinaiticus and Vaticanus), while all remaining Greek MSS (save
those which are missing the final page of Mark) contain the long ending,
with a few containing both the long ending and the shorter ending? At
least that would be factual. 

You might also want to note that Vaticanus happens to leave a blank space
at the end of Mark (unique in the entire NT of that MS) which is nearly
sufficient to contain the whole of those verses, and which likely
indicates that the scribe of Vaticanus knew of the long ending and
apparently had some concern regarding the omission which the blank space
seems to reflect.

And as for "late" and "virtually worthless" evidence, I doubt that the
evidence of the Curetonian Syriac (sy-c), which contains the long ending
(at least the last few verses in the extant fragments)  should be so
quickly discounted as mere Byzantine-era fluff. 


=================================================
Maurice A. Robinson
Professor of NT and Greek
Southeastern Baptist Theological Seminary
Wake Forest, North Carolina

___________________________________________________________________
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From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Wed Oct 21 21:45:21 1998
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>On Wed, 21 Oct 1998 15:55:25 +0000 Jim West <jwest@Highland.Net> writes:
>>At 01:49 AM 10/21/98 +0000, you wrote:
>
>>>--> Mark 16:9-20
>
>>There is absolutely no doubt that the long ending of Mark is secondary
>>and was not a part of the earliest document.  A brief glance at the
>>textual evidence will show that it is LATE, late, late!!!!!!
>
>[snip]
>
>>The long ending (as it is called) is preserved by various parties
>>because their treasured text is based on late, virtually worthless (so
>far as
>>being useful in recovering the earliest readings of any NT document),
>>Byzantine manuscripts.
>
>Although I am too preoccupied to get into a debate over the long ending
>of Mark, I am somewhat at a loss over the rhetoric and invective in Jim's
>message. Something better than a misleading diatribe would be preferable.
>
>
>Why not simply note that among the extant Greek MSS there are only two
>which actually omit the passage (the somewhat interrelated Alexandrian
>witnesses Sinaiticus and Vaticanus), while all remaining Greek MSS (save
>those which are missing the final page of Mark) contain the long ending,
>with a few containing both the long ending and the shorter ending? At
>least that would be factual.
>
>You might also want to note that Vaticanus happens to leave a blank space
>at the end of Mark (unique in the entire NT of that MS) which is nearly
>sufficient to contain the whole of those verses, and which likely
>indicates that the scribe of Vaticanus knew of the long ending and
>apparently had some concern regarding the omission which the blank space
>seems to reflect.
>
>And as for "late" and "virtually worthless" evidence, I doubt that the
>evidence of the Curetonian Syriac (sy-c), which contains the long ending
>(at least the last few verses in the extant fragments)  should be so
>quickly discounted as mere Byzantine-era fluff.
>
Thanks, Maurice, for reminding us how scholars discuss such questions.  It
seems that I read somewhere that there is evidence that Tatian's
Diatessaron used the long ending.  Can someone confirm or give contra
evidence?

I would add that I think that it takes both external and internal
(intrinsic and transcriptional) evidence to make the case that Metzger
does.  The external evidence alone is not so conclusive.


Carlton L. Winbery
Fogleman Professor of Religion
Louisiana College
Pineville, LA 71359
winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net
winbery@andria.lacollege.edu




From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Wed Oct 21 22:00:26 1998
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From: "R. David Large" <David@ezol.com>
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Kerry:

I would take serious issue with the following statement on several grounds:

>There is absolutely no doubt that the long ending of Mark is secondary
>and was not a part of the earliest document.  A brief glance at the
>textual evidence will show that it is LATE, late, late!!!!!!

1) 'Absolutely no doubt' might exist in Mr. West's mind (and perhaps a host
of others) regarding the passage's authenticity claims, but the statement is
simply too sweeping-- if designed to apply to the available evidence. One
might readily think of the glib and dogmatic assurances proffered by the
professional atheists who vanguard modern evolutionary thought. Modern
opinion might have reached a consensus-- that nowhere constitutes 'ab-
solutely no doubt' regarding the truth ... it merely reflects the foregone
con-
clusions of the skeptics whose presuppositions color their view of the
facts.
It would have been better stated, 'There is widespread doubt ...'.

2) "... and was not a part of the earliest document." : Aside from the fact
that
Mr. West's assertion is, on its face, false (many individuals are convinced
other-
wise after all), the statement reveals his method of arbitrating variant
readings to
a considerable degree: the reading of the oldest document wins.

This ignores the important distinction between the age of a document's text,
the
age of the document bearing the text and the originality of the text
itself-- which
originality is often determined on bases other than the sole age of a
manuscript.

It also overlooks the possibility that the earliest document (assuming we
are talk-
ing about the original document and not the oldest MS extant) might have
borne
the verses in question in the beginning, only to have lost them due to the
ravages
of age, handling, time or accident-- all along serving as exemplar for an
unknown
number of copies, sent to an unknowable number of locales.

3) Quite apart from the assertion that "...textual evidence will show that
it is LATE,
late, late!!!!!!", equally early evidence of its use (which, I might add,
logically infers
its acceptance as original) is available -- I defer to Dr. Robinson's and
Mr. Woodruff's
comments on this point. I might add that the passage is extant across a
geographic-
ally and textually diverse range of evidence-- which diversity testifies to
originality
more than the Alexandrian codices (Sinaiticus and Vaticanus)-- and I would
add 304--
testify against it.

I believe the passage is genuine.

R. David Large
David@ezol.com







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From: Jim West <jwest@Highland.Net>
Subject: tc-list :-)
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Ya see, people do have strong opinions... all ya have to do is shake 'em out
of them from time to time and viola, a quiet room is soon filled with all
sorts of stimulating conversation.

Take a simple question- add a dash of dogmatism, and shake!  And you will
have a delightful meal with everything from outrage to opposition to any
idea propounded...

Best to all,

Jim

+++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
Adjunct Professor of Bible- Quartz Hill School of Theology
Pastor- Petros Baptist Church

jwest@highland.net



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 <1.5.4.32.19981021155525.0066cfe0@highland.net>
Date: Thu, 22 Oct 1998 08:16:46 -0500
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From: "Robert B. Waltz" <waltzmn@skypoint.com>
Subject: Re: tc-list Re:Mark 16:9-20
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I wasn't going to add my opinions on this thread, as I had already
given them privately to the original poster. But a few odd thoughts
on the direction of the discussion.

Carlton Winbery <winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net> wrote, in part:

>I would add that I think that it takes both external and internal
>(intrinsic and transcriptional) evidence to make the case that Metzger
>does.  The external evidence alone is not so conclusive.

Depends on where one stands. As a person who always studies the
external evidence first (and will wherever possible decide things
based on the external evidence), I would state that the external
evidence against the passage is pretty strong. Note:

It is omitted by:

* The earliest Alexandrian witnesses: Aleph B sa-ms

* The earliest "Western" witnesses: (a defective but does not have space)
    k sin

* The earliest "Caesarean" witnesses: arm-mss geo1 geoA

Alternate endings are found in:

* Many late Alexandrian witnesses: L Psi 579 sa-mss bo-mss pc

Some sort of expression of doubt are found in:

* certain "Caesarean" witnesses: f1 pc

Frankly, to me that adds up to an addition. If the internal evidence
happens to agree, wonderful. :-)

***

"R. David Large" <David@ezol.com> wrote, in part:

>I believe the passage is genuine.

This cries out for a definition of "genuine." There are at least
three possible meanings: "Part of the original writing," "A work
of the original author (but not part of *this* work)," and
"Canonical." It appears that the author of the post means the
first, but the term needs to be clarified. A passage may be canonical
without being by the original/alleged author (witness Second Isaiah,
or for that matter the whole Torah; compare also 2 Peter, etc.)
Or it may be by the author without being part of the writing
(perhaps Romans 16; at least part of 2 Corinthians). Etc.

It sounds, though, as if the poster is a supporter of the Byzantine
text. In fact, I have never heard anyone support this passage who
is not a supporter of the Byzantine text. This is perhaps worth
keeping in mind.

***

I guess this proves Jim West's point about how dogmatic we are. :-)
Not sure what the cure is....
-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-

                        Robert B. Waltz
                     waltzmn@skypoint.com

Want more loudmouthed opinions about textual criticism?
Try my web page: http://www.skypoint.com/~waltzmn
(A site inspired by the Encyclopedia of NT Textual Criticism)

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On Wed, 21 Oct 1998 22:03:35 -0400 "R. David Large" <David@ezol.com>
writes:

> I might add that the passage is extant across a geographically and
textually diverse > range of evidence-- which diversity testifies to
originality more than the Alexandrian > codices (Sinaiticus and
Vaticanus)-- and I would add 304-- testify against it.

Side note to this point: 

MS 304 (12th century) is a commentary MS on Mt and Mk, in which the
primary matter is the commentary. The gospel text is merely interspersed
between the blocks of commentary material, and should not be considered
the same as a "normal" continuous-text MS. Also, it is often very
difficult to discern the text in contrast to the comments in this MS.

The text of Mk 16:8 in MS 304 agrees with N27 except that it reads EICE
and EIPON for EICEN and EIPON, as well as DE in place of GAR1.  Following
GAR2 at the close of the verse, the MS has a mark like a filled-in "o",
followed by many pages of commentary, all of which _summarize_ the
endings of the other gospels and even quotes portions of them. 

Following this, the commentary then begins to summarize the "ETERON DE TA
PARA TOU MARKOU," presumably to cover the non-duplicated portions germane
to that gospel in contrast to the others. There remain quotes and
references to the other gospels in regard to Mary Magdalene, Peter,
Galilee, the fear of the women, etc.  But at this point the commentary
abruptly ends, without completing the remainder of the narrative or the
parallels. I suspect that the commentary (which contains only Mt and Mk)
originally continued the discussion and that a final page or pages at the
end of this volume likely were lost.  

Also, MS 304 has no note regarding the Eusebian questions regarding the
ending of Mark, nor any mention of what the "AKRIBWS" manuscripts might
read regarding the ending, either of which would likely be expected
within a commentary MS at such a point.  

I would suggest that MS 304 should NOT be claimed as a witness to the
shortest ending any more than the (now-discredited) claim of UBS2 that
such was the case of MS 2386 (11th century). In the case of MS 2368, a
page ended at 16:8 with TELOS written in abbreviated form, but the TELOS
simply marked the end of a lection, and there was clear evidence that a
subsequent continuing leaf had been lost (cf. Metzger, Textual
Commentary, in loc.). This was also the case with several other MSS noted
in the course of my research.  The only Greek MSS which actually omit the
long ending of Mark are Aleph and B.

==============================================
Maurice A. Robinson
Professor of NT and Greek
Southeastern Baptist Theological Seminary
Wake Forest, North Carolina

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From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Thu Oct 22 12:46:46 1998
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On Thu, 22 Oct 1998 08:16:46 -0500 "Robert B. Waltz"
<waltzmn@skypoint.com> writes:

>I wasn't going to add my opinions on this thread, as I had already
>given them privately to the original poster. But a few odd thoughts
>on the direction of the discussion.

Although I am trying avoid debate (probably for similar reasons), I still
have some odd thoughts. Oddness is my prerequisite for doing textual
criticism.

>Alternate endings are found in:
>* Many late Alexandrian witnesses: L Psi 579 sa-mss bo-mss pc

Whether this small selection (add to the pool 083, 099, 274mg, L-1602,
sy-hmg, eth-mss) equals "many" is debatable, and though the MSS may be
chronologically late as regards copying date, their text may still be
early. 

However, among the Greek witnesses at least, the alternate short ending
(only one!) is _always_ found in conjunction with the long ending, and
with a note attached ("expression of doubt" if you like). Old Latin
Bobbiensis (k) does have the short ending without the long ending, but it
is the only exception.  BTW -- going back to the beginning of the thread
-- Burgon's 1871 book is still excellent as regards the complete and
comprehensive presentation of the evidence, since very little that is new
has been added to the pool. So even if one does not agree with Burgon's
conclusions, his book is still valuable in this regard).

>Some sort of expression of doubt are found in:
>* certain "Caesarean" witnesses: f1 pc
>Frankly, to me that adds up to an addition. If the internal evidence
>happens to agree, wonderful. :-)

Yet elsewhere, when similar early witnesses possess readings with NO
expression of doubt attached, one should not thereby conclude
authenticity any more than one should when the same MSS elsewhere lack
words or phrases which happen to be marginally noted (cf. the longer
Alexandrian reading at Mt. 27:49 or the agrapha of D at Mt 20:28 or Lk
6:4; also the omission of Mt 24:35 in Aleph*). Marginal notes and
comments reflect at most an opinion current at the time in which the MS
was written, maybe even an earlier opinion. The opinion may tend toward
an assumption of authenticity or inauthenticity, but the weight of the
totality of the evidence is far superior to those marginal or other
annotations.

>It sounds, though, as if the poster is a supporter of the Byzantine
>text. In fact, I have never heard anyone support this passage who
>is not a supporter of the Byzantine text. This is perhaps worth
>keeping in mind.

Mr. Large may or may not be a Byzantine supporter.  I am, but it seems
that this is irrelevant to the point at this variant unit, since I see no
reason why any non-Byzantine supporter could not practice reasoned
eclecticism on this passage and legitimately conclude authenticity for
these 12 verses on the basis of the evidence they tend most to respect.
The very early support from the Curetonian Syriac and Irenaeus serves as
a minimum. The sources which omit are diverse (though predominantly
Egyptian), but not so diverse as the sources which include. One still has
to contend with the testimony of the non-Byzantine witnesses C D W Theta
f13, 33, the rest of the Old Latin tradition, the Syriac tradition apart
from sy-s (including the early sy-c), and the Coptic Bohairic, all very
diverse and all in unquestioned support of these verses.  Codex
Alexandrinus (generally Byzantine in the Gospels) is the only early
witness liable to the awful "Byzantine" accusation.

Further, the fact that B includes the unique extended blank space at this
point also could influence a reasoned eclectic to argue a pre-Vaticanus
presence of the passage, perhaps in the archetype of Vaticanus. So add
this to the pool supporting its possible authenticity.

William Farmer certainly is not a Byzantine text supporter, but at least
to my reading and recollection (correct me if I  am wrong -- it has been
24 years since I read Farmer's book) in his "Last Twelve Verses of Mark"
(1974),  Farmer (in his own way)  argues for the originality of these
verses in the pre-canonical archetype of Mark's gospel. 

Farmer as I recall rejects the hypotheses that Mark originally ended at
16:8 or that a later summary was tacked on after the text was accepted as
canonical. He argues, however,  that the ending is NOT by the same author
as the rest of Mark, but still that the ending was produced and completed
(apparently with approval of "Mark") BEFORE the gospel was put into
circulation. If this is a correct summary, then there would be at least
one non-Byzantine person out there who would argue authenticity.

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From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Thu Oct 22 16:42:16 1998
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From: "William L. Petersen" <wlp1@psu.edu>
Subject: tc-list Mark 16:9-20
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Some observations on the "long" ending of Mark, which have not yet been
made on the list (although they are certainly in the literature):

(1) The *internal* evidence would seem to suggest that the long ending
(16:9-20) is a pastiche of material culled from the resurrection
appearances in extant NT books:

> v. 9 early on the first day of the week = Matt 28.1 or Mk. 16.2 or Lk 24.1
> v. 9: first to Mary M = John 20.1, 14, 18
> v. 9: seven demons = Lk 8.2
> v.10: etc., etc.
> v. 12 = Luke's Emmaus episode
> v. 14 = John 10.19-29
> v. 15 = Matt 28.19
> etc., etc.

Virtually *every* detail of every *appearance* cited in the "long ending"
has a parallel in some other canonical gospel.  This is odd, for unlike the
other parallels between Mark and the other gospels (e.g., the Anointing at
Bethany)--in which the parallelism is extended and often verbatim--here we
find mere "echoes" of the other appearances:  enough to remind you of the
story, and let you identify it, but no "full" parallelism.

If one wished to provide an ending for a gospel which--like Mark, if it
ended at 16.8--lacked (or had lost) a *satisfactory* ending, would this not
be precisely the way one would go about supplying an ending?  Would one not
harmonize the material from the other gospels?  (Recall that only John
has--as does the longer ending of Mark--an appearance to Mary M *first*.
In Matt, Jesus first meets the "women" [28.9-10], while in Luke, the two
Emmaus guys are the first to see him.  Mark brings no "new" information to
us here, and must select one of the other gospel's "first" appearance to be
*his* "first" appearance.)

This very different sort of parallelism and the technique of referencing
(enough so you know what's being referenced, but not a full parallel)
argues *against* the authenticity of the "long" ending, by my standards.
The author of the long ending is, in my view, simply "cribbing" his
appearances from the other gospels.

(2) The unique stuff in the long ending, in vv. 17-18 (snakes & poisons,
etc.), while practiced by certain Christian groups today, does not--to my
knowledge--seem to have had *any* currency in Christian antiquity.  Justin,
Origen, etc., etc., etc., don't seem to talk about it or urge it on their
followers.  If, however, the "long ending" were original, then these would
have been the part of the concluding verses of the oldest gospel (as per
the 4 source theory);   one might have expected more attention to have been
given to these remarkable activities...or, conversely, to have cautioned
against it (or have I missed a new test of faith at certain seminaries?
Faculty first, guys... [  ;-) ])...but they don't (at least as far as I
know the Fathers);  instead, they simply act as if it doesn't exist.  (Why?
 Because it probably didn't.)

(3) The reference to Irenaeus shows that the long ending (IF it is THIS
ending, and not some other ending which ALSO contained the "right hand of
God" reference.... [recall that we've several endings floating around here,
something which, simply by itself, suggests a textual disturbance...]) is
old.  But the silence of all other early Fathers is curious--and Irenaeus'
reference is only to one part of one verse of the "long ending"--not a
citation of it "en bloc."  (Note that while Irenaeus specifically states
the reference is from the "end of Mark" [might this be an attempt to
legitimize the ending, and an interpolation into Irenaeus???], "sitting at
the right hand of God" is an image found in Heb. 10.12 and Col. 3.1,
and--without the "seated" bit--found in many other NT references.   Again,
I find this odd...  How often does Irenaeus cite a reference by stating
from *which* book he is drawing it, and *where*, specifically, in that book
he is drawing the citation???  "Methinks the good pater doeth give his
source *too* precisely."

(4) Regarding the Diatessaronic witnesses, I've not checked them all, but
Codex Fuldensis and the Liege Harmony have the long ending harmonized in
with the other material from the other gospels, as do the Arabic and the
Persian.  Ephrem's *Commentary,* however, lacks any reference...  Given the
prominence of the ending in later MSS of Mark, it is not surprising to find
the long ending in some of the harmonies.  Ephrem's silence, however,
matches that of Justin, Clement of Alexandria, Tertullian, and Origen--to
name only the most obvious.

***

The two questions for those who wish to defend the authenticity of the long
ending are (to my mind, at least):  (1) *Why* would it be omitted?  (2) Why
are *all* of the appearances of Jesus in the "long ending" merely truncated
versions of appearances described elsewhere in the gospels?  This is
singularly odd, for ALL the other gospels have "unique" appearances--that
is, appearances unique to that gospel:  Emmaus for Luke, to Mary Mag and
the other Mary outside the tomb for Matt, and to Mary Mag, as a gardener,
in John.  *Only Mark,* if you paste on the long ending, would not have any
distinctive (= "only in Mark") appearances.  This suggests to me that
something is rotten on the rue Nablus.

V. Taylor, *The Gospel according to St. Mark* has a good section on the
Greek text and the support (or lack thereof) for the long ending in the
early church.

--Petersen, Penn State University.


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From: "Kerry Gilliard" <blufunk195@tidalwave.net>
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Maurice,

You said:
> Farmer as I recall rejects the hypotheses that Mark originally ended at
> 16:8 or that a later summary was tacked on after the text was accepted as
> canonical. He argues, however,  that the ending is NOT by the same author
> as the rest of Mark, but still that the ending was produced and completed
> (apparently with approval of "Mark") BEFORE the gospel was put into
> circulation. If this is a correct summary, then there would be at least
> one non-Byzantine person out there who would argue authenticity.

Now THAT's something that passed my mind during my search (BTW- thank you everyone. So much information, so little time....)- are there any other 'theories' regarding the 'origin' of the last 12 verses?

Also, for those on the list who hold a 'conservative/evangelical' position regarding scripture, does the use of morphe in 16:12 (as opposed to schema, although some people consider them synonyms) present a problem with accepting the verses as authentic? 

Kerry Gilliard
http://witness.base.org OR 
http://tidalwave.net/~blufunk195
1 Peter 3:15, Jude 3


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See my comments below ...

-----Original Message-----
From: Robert B. Waltz <waltzmn@skypoint.com>
To: tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu <tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu>
Date: Thursday, October 22, 1998 10:20 AM
Subject: Re: tc-list Re:Mark 16:9-20


[snip]

>>I believe the passage is genuine.
>
>This cries out for a definition of "genuine." There are at least
>three possible meanings: "Part of the original writing," "A work
>of the original author (but not part of *this* work)," and
>"Canonical." It appears that the author of the post means the
>first, but the term needs to be clarified. [snip]


My definition of 'genuine' was delivered within the context of the original
inquiry which addressed (to my understanding) the authenticity of the
passage to Mark's gospel. I apologize for any perceived ambiguity :-)

>It sounds, though, as if the poster is a supporter of the Byzantine
>text.

As Dr. Robinson commented, this is truly irrelevant at his point. There
are no theoretical demands within eclectic text-critical praxis which re-
quire the outright rejection of this passage. In fact, most (to my mind)
take issue with this passage on the front of internal evidence which, as
we are all aware, tends to be argued in as many ingenious ways as the
number of historical facts within reach of the critic's imagination.

>In fact, I have never heard anyone support this passage who
>is not a supporter of the Byzantine text.

I freely admit to have considerable sympathy for many Byzantine readings
though I fail to see how that might apply here (unless, of course, one sees
such admission as either a green light to launch an ad hominem lob or, if
of a particularly warm-blooded temperament, sufficient evidence to ignite
the
fire with which to consume the poor heretic who made it ;-).

> This is perhaps worth keeping in mind.


Why?

1) Because all arguments made by Byzantine supporters can be as summar-
ily dismissed as the readings they favor ...

2) Because only Byzantine supporters possess the unique mental flaws requi-
site to dare peep or mutter a breath in defense of such an (universally
agreed)
indefensible passage ...

3) Because only Byzantine supporters get this doggoned MAD wHeN.....they
fEEL
EVen tHe LEast...biT QUestIoNED by THOSe OF  LESSER ............iNTelIiGence
..........AND..........wISdOm....AAARRRRGGHHHH!!!!!!!$%%#@!@#$$~^%$~&^%

<sigh> ;-)

As to Dr. Robinson's comment on 304, I mentioned it primarily due to its
mention
and description in other standard works as evidence against the passage. The
in-
clusion was intended to prevent the full MS evidence (as I understood it) to
be in-
advertently understated in favor of the passage's inauthenticity, not as a
result of
any personal conviction of its value contra the passage. Your comments are
not-
ed and appreciated :-)

R. David Large
David@ezol.com






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Subject: Re: tc-list Mark 16:9-20
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Another factor to throw into the mix is a tenth-century Armenian MS that
ascribes the longer ending of Mark to Ariston.  Ariston is mentioned by
Papias in one of Eusebius' quotations [HE, III.39.4, cf. 7].  There is
other evidence that the writings of Papias were known in Armenia around
this time.  For example, Orchard cites a Folker Siegert article, NTS 
27:605-14, that a thirteenth-century Armenian scholar, Vardan, refers
to Papias' exegesis on ALHOS and that an Armenian fragment on the
Apocalyse of John quotes Papias.

This suggests, if somewhat speculatively, that there is information in
the lost works of Papias about the longer ending of Mark, possibly
attesting to its lack of originality.

It is also interesting that the Armenians may have preserved some
information connecting Papias to the other major text critical problem
-- the Pericope Adultera.  Apparently, Vardan also stated that Papias
wrote it.  This statement is more explicit than Eusebius' own
obscure statement that Papias has "expounded another story about a
woman who was accused before the Lord of many sins, which the Gospel
to the Hebrews contains." [HE, III.39.17]  Papias is also connect to
the writing of the Fourth Gospel in other traditions, for example,
in the Old Latin Prolog to John.

If there is any lost, non-hypothetical early Christian text that would
be found, I would want it to be the five-volume work of Papias.  It
would answer so many questions about so many puzzles.

Stephen Carlson
--
Stephen C. Carlson                        mailto:scarlson@mindspring.com
Synoptic Problem Home Page   http://www.mindspring.com/~scarlson/synopt/
"Poetry speaks of aspirations, and songs chant the words."  Shujing 2.35

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William L. Petersen wrote:
> 
> Some observations on the "long" ending of Mark, which have not yet been
> made on the list (although they are certainly in the literature):
> 
> (1) The *internal* evidence would seem to suggest that the long ending
> (16:9-20) is a pastiche of material culled from the resurrection
> appearances in extant NT books:
> 
> > v. 9 early on the first day of the week = Matt 28.1 or Mk. 16.2 or Lk 24.1
> > v. 9: first to Mary M = John 20.1, 14, 18
> > v. 9: seven demons = Lk 8.2
> > v.10: etc., etc.
> > v. 12 = Luke's Emmaus episode
> > v. 14 = John 10.19-29
> > v. 15 = Matt 28.19
> > etc., etc.
> 
> Virtually *every* detail of every *appearance* cited in the "long ending"
> has a parallel in some other canonical gospel.  This is odd, for unlike the
> other parallels between Mark and the other gospels (e.g., the Anointing at
> Bethany)--in which the parallelism is extended and often verbatim--here we
> find mere "echoes" of the other appearances:  enough to remind you of the
> story, and let you identify it, but no "full" parallelism.
> 
> If one wished to provide an ending for a gospel which--like Mark, if it
> ended at 16.8--lacked (or had lost) a *satisfactory* ending, would this not
> be precisely the way one would go about supplying an ending?  Would one not
> harmonize the material from the other gospels?  (Recall that only John
> has--as does the longer ending of Mark--an appearance to Mary M *first*.
> In Matt, Jesus first meets the "women" [28.9-10], while in Luke, the two
> Emmaus guys are the first to see him.  Mark brings no "new" information to
> us here, and must select one of the other gospel's "first" appearance to be
> *his* "first" appearance.)

My only comment on this subject (and I tend to think the long ending is
not part of the original text - but not with the aboslute, 
incontrovertible certainty of some) is that I don't thinkt there's much
hope of making textual decisions based on what "seems" like it would be
what would be supplied to fill a lacuna. The problem with this is, what
then would we expect the real ending, if there was anyting beyond v.9,
to have looked like?  If parallel appearenaces on the one hand, but
totally unique material on the other hand aren't what would have been in
a presumed original ending, what would have been in that ending?   Since
there's really no way to determine that, I find a judgment about what
would have been written by someone trying to fill the void a problematic
basis for a textual decision.


Ken Litwak 


 
> This very different sort of parallelism and the technique of referencing
> (enough so you know what's being referenced, but not a full parallel)
> argues *against* the authenticity of the "long" ending, by my standards.
> The author of the long ending is, in my view, simply "cribbing" his
> appearances from the other gospels.
> 
> (2) The unique stuff in the long ending, in vv. 17-18 (snakes & poisons,
> etc.), while practiced by certain Christian groups today, does not--to my
> knowledge--seem to have had *any* currency in Christian antiquity.  Justin,
> Origen, etc., etc., etc., don't seem to talk about it or urge it on their
> followers.  If, however, the "long ending" were original, then these would
> have been the part of the concluding verses of the oldest gospel (as per
> the 4 source theory);   one might have expected more attention to have been
> given to these remarkable activities...or, conversely, to have cautioned
> against it (or have I missed a new test of faith at certain seminaries?
> Faculty first, guys... [  ;-) ])...but they don't (at least as far as I
> know the Fathers);  instead, they simply act as if it doesn't exist.  (Why?
>  Because it probably didn't.)
> 
> (3) The reference to Irenaeus shows that the long ending (IF it is THIS
> ending, and not some other ending which ALSO contained the "right hand of
> God" reference.... [recall that we've several endings floating around here,
> something which, simply by itself, suggests a textual disturbance...]) is
> old.  But the silence of all other early Fathers is curious--and Irenaeus'
> reference is only to one part of one verse of the "long ending"--not a
> citation of it "en bloc."  (Note that while Irenaeus specifically states
> the reference is from the "end of Mark" [might this be an attempt to
> legitimize the ending, and an interpolation into Irenaeus???], "sitting at
> the right hand of God" is an image found in Heb. 10.12 and Col. 3.1,
> and--without the "seated" bit--found in many other NT references.   Again,
> I find this odd...  How often does Irenaeus cite a reference by stating
> from *which* book he is drawing it, and *where*, specifically, in that book
> he is drawing the citation???  "Methinks the good pater doeth give his
> source *too* precisely."
> 
> (4) Regarding the Diatessaronic witnesses, I've not checked them all, but
> Codex Fuldensis and the Liege Harmony have the long ending harmonized in
> with the other material from the other gospels, as do the Arabic and the
> Persian.  Ephrem's *Commentary,* however, lacks any reference...  Given the
> prominence of the ending in later MSS of Mark, it is not surprising to find
> the long ending in some of the harmonies.  Ephrem's silence, however,
> matches that of Justin, Clement of Alexandria, Tertullian, and Origen--to
> name only the most obvious.
> 
> ***
> 
> The two questions for those who wish to defend the authenticity of the long
> ending are (to my mind, at least):  (1) *Why* would it be omitted?  (2) Why
> are *all* of the appearances of Jesus in the "long ending" merely truncated
> versions of appearances described elsewhere in the gospels?  This is
> singularly odd, for ALL the other gospels have "unique" appearances--that
> is, appearances unique to that gospel:  Emmaus for Luke, to Mary Mag and
> the other Mary outside the tomb for Matt, and to Mary Mag, as a gardener,
> in John.  *Only Mark,* if you paste on the long ending, would not have any
> distinctive (= "only in Mark") appearances.  This suggests to me that
> something is rotten on the rue Nablus.
> 
> V. Taylor, *The Gospel according to St. Mark* has a good section on the
> Greek text and the support (or lack thereof) for the long ending in the
> early church.
> 
> --Petersen, Penn State University.

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From: "Prof. Ron Minton" <rminton@mail.orion.org>
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Subject: Re: tc-list Re:Mark 16:9-20
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On Thu, 22 Oct 1998, Robert B. Waltz wrote:
>... I would state that the external evidence against the passage is
> pretty strong. Note:
> 
> It is omitted by:
> * The earliest Alexandrian witnesses: Aleph B sa-ms
> * The earliest "Western" witnesses: (a defective but does not have space)
>     k sin
> * The earliest "Caesarean" witnesses: arm-mss geo1 geoA
> Alternate endings are found in:
> * Many late Alexandrian witnesses: L Psi 579 sa-mss bo-mss pc
> Some sort of expression of doubt are found in:
> * certain "Caesarean" witnesses: f1 pc
> Frankly, to me that adds up to an addition. If the internal evidence
> happens to agree, wonderful. :-)


As I see it we should not normally take the age difference in competing 
manuscripts as that important unless there are several centuries between
the representatives.  In this case there is not.

As I see it we should not normally take the quantitative difference in
competing manuscripts as that important unless there are enormous
differences between the representatives.  In this case there is.  1800 to
3 is significant even to those of us who despise mere "nose counting."

Professor Ron Minton


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Subject: tc-list Mark 16:9-20
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Generally speaking, I agree with Ken Litwak's observations;  there are,
however, a couple points in his comments which indicate that I need to be
clearer in stating my position, so as to prevent misunderstanding.

I begin with the following:

(1) Observation:  all other gospels contain some unique resurrection
appearances;
(2) Mark does not.
(3) All of  the appearances in Mark's "long ending" are also found in other
gospels.

Next:  If one were to "supply" an ending for a Mark which lacked one, there
are three possibilities:

(a) create your own appearance stories (utterly without parallels)--but
this is not what we find;
(b) combine parts of other canonical appearance episodes with your own
unique (unparalleled) material--but this is not what we find;
(c) crib off of the other appearance episodes in the canonical gospels
(this would mean all of the appearances would have parallels).

Our empirical observation leads us to exclude possibilities a and b, and
selecting c.

If one were to assume that the long ending were part of the "original" text
of Mark (which is the alternative being proposed on the list), then one
faces three very odd circumstances:

(A) Unlike all other parallels among the gospels, where Mark gives a full
narrative (take a synopsis and look at the "Cleansing of the Temple" [Mark
11:15-19, parr.], "The Question about Jesus' Authority" [Mark 11:27-33,
parr.], or the "Synoptic Apocalypse" [Mark 13, parr.]), and the other
gospels follow suit, here we would have *the only known case* where Mark
gives a series of "one-liners" (v. 9:  "he appeared first to Mary
Magdalene";  v. 12: "he appeared in another form to two of them as they
were walking in the country";  etc.), which are then *blown up* by the
other evangelists into full stories (Luke 24:13-35 [the Emmaus episode]
would be an expansion of Mark 16:12).  This seems unlikely, for it is
inconsistent with all other parallels among the gospels:  nowhere else (if
I am wrong, please give me the reference...) do we find 5 or 10 *words* in
Mark being expanded in the parallel accounts into *22 verses*, as happens
with the Emmaus account.  The fact that this pattern of composition is
*contrary to the norm* should set off alarm bells.

(B) The fact that stringing together of bits and pieces of known stories
from the gospels into catenae (which is essentially what we have in the
long ending:  a catena of resurrection appearances drawn from the other
canonical gospels) was a practice in later (2nd, 3rd cent.) Christianity,
and the fact that the creation of such a catena is one of the 3 things (see
a-c, above) we might expect someone to do if one where needing to supply
resurrection apprearances to the end of Mark, also suggests that the long
ending is secondary.

(C) Vincent Taylor remarks on the non-Marcan style of the long ending--a
point which I find very convincing.  Taylor:  (p. 610):  "The vocabulary
and style of this section show clearly that it was not written by Mark, but
is based on a knowledge of traditions found in Lk and Jn."  He then
proceeds to list a whole catalogue of non-Marcan features (vocabulary,
grammar, etc., etc.).  (Taylor also provides an excellent summary of the
Patristic [non-]evidence for the long ending...)

>From my prespective, then, it is not (as Ken seems to suggest)

>making textual decisions based on what "seems" like it would be
>what would be supplied to fill a lacuna.

Rather, it is listing all the options (a, b, and c, above) as to how an
abrupt, unacceptable, or lost ending of Mark might be rectified.  Eliminate
what is not the case (a and b of the above), and you are left with c.  Is c
reasonable?  Yes it is.  The only other possibility is that the long ending
is "original"--but that faces the problems listed as A, B, C--in addition
to the manuscript evidence, which *also* argues against the "originality"
of the long ending.

In short, what we empirically find in the long ending (i.e., a catena of
resurrection appearances, entirely dependent upon the other gospels) is one
of the three options for providing a satisfactory ending for Mark.  There
is nothing unusual about it;  it requires *no* leaps in logic or evidence.
It also concurs with the observed Patristic silence (*pace* Irenaeus' very
[to my mind] suspicious quotation), the statements of Jerome and Eusebius
(that the long ending was lacking in most mauscripts known to them), the
fact that the langaugue in the long ending is not Marcan, and the empirical
state of the textual evidence:  it is missing in our oldest MSS (something
upon which Jerome and Eusebius also note, even way back then).  
Arguing that the long ending is "original" requires one to abandon this
very logical and consistent pattern;  it also requires one to answer the
following questions:  (1) How does one explain its absence in the oldest
MSS?  (2) How does one explain its non-Marcan style?  (3) How does one
explain the silence of the Fathers on its remarkable, distinctive features
(e.g., v. 18)?  (4) How does one explain its "non-standard" parallel style
(i.e., not a full parallel, as we have elsewhere in Mark and the other
gospels, but just these very abbreviated "echoes" of the other resurrection
appearances)?  (5) How does one prove that the passage is *not* what it
appears to be:  a catena of appearances extracted (and condensed) from the
other gospels?

--Petersen, Penn State Univ.

>
>My only comment on this subject (and I tend to think the long ending is
>not part of the original text - but not with the aboslute, 
>incontrovertible certainty of some) is that I don't thinkt there's much
>hope of making textual decisions based on what "seems" like it would be
>what would be supplied to fill a lacuna. The problem with this is, what
>then would we expect the real ending, if there was anyting beyond v.9,
>to have looked like?  If parallel appearenaces on the one hand, but
>totally unique material on the other hand aren't what would have been in
>a presumed original ending, what would have been in that ending?   Since
>there's really no way to determine that, I find a judgment about what
>would have been written by someone trying to fill the void a problematic
>basis for a textual decision.
>
>
>Ken Litwak 


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Can I applaud the clarity of thought and of presentation of thought 
in Bill Petersen's response to Ken Litwak?  Bill has very helpfully 
set out the *rationale* he is following in making a textual decision, 
which is often what is missing in the exchanges of opinions (often 
pre-conceived) on this list.  If one is inclined to reach conclusions 
other than those Bill favors, then one at least has a clear 
presentation of positions to address (and a clear model of how to 
set forth a contrary view of things).

L. W. Hurtado
University of Edinburgh,
New College
Mound Place 
Edinburgh, Scotland EH1 2LX
Phone: 0131-650-8920
Fax: 0131-650-6579
E-mail:  L.Hurtado@ed.ac.uk

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On 23 Oct 98 at 10:57, William L. Petersen wrote:

> (A) Unlike all other parallels among the gospels, where Mark gives a full
> narrative (take a synopsis and look at the "Cleansing of the Temple" [Mark
> 11:15-19, parr.], "The Question about Jesus' Authority" [Mark 11:27-33,
> parr.], or the "Synoptic Apocalypse" [Mark 13, parr.]), and the other gospels
> follow suit, here we would have *the only known case* where Mark gives a
> series of "one-liners" (v. 9:  "he appeared first to Mary Magdalene";  v. 12:
> "he appeared in another form to two of them as they were walking in the
> country";  etc.), which are then *blown up* by the other evangelists into full
> stories (Luke 24:13-35 [the Emmaus episode] would be an expansion of Mark
> 16:12).  This seems unlikely, for it is inconsistent with all other parallels
> among the gospels:  nowhere else (if I am wrong, please give me the
> reference...) do we find 5 or 10 *words* in Mark being expanded in the
> parallel accounts into *22 verses*, as happens with the Emmaus account.  The
> fact that this pattern of composition is
> *contrary to the norm* should set off alarm bells.

I agree with Prof. Hurtado in finding Prof. Petersen's post clear and 
convincing.  However,  there are answers to the points made in this paragraph.  
It is not always the case that "Mark gives a full narrative . . . and the other 
gospels follow suit".  On several occasions Mark has a barebones narrative 
where Matthew and Luke have a much fuller parallel.  The Temptation Narrative 
is the most famous example (Mark 1.12-13) -- two verses in Mark against eleven 
in Matthew (4.1-11) and thirteen in Luke (4.1-13), not dissimilar to the Emmaus 
example under discussion -- two verses in Mark (16.12-13, more than "5 or 10 
words") against twenty-two in Luke (24.13-35).

One might think too of the Call of the Disciples in Luke (5.1-11) compared 
with Mark (1.16-20) or the Rejection at Nazareth in Luke (4.16-30) compared 
with Mark (6.1-6a).  Or an even more striking example might be the Sermon on 
the Mount in Matthew -- 138 verses in Matthew 5-7 compared to one or two verses 
in Mark (1.22-23 or 1.39, depending on where one sees Matthew inserting it into 
the Markan outline).  One of the great pains (or glories)  of Synoptic Problem 
studies is the difficulty of establishing clear tendencies e.g. of abbreviation 
or expansion (see especially Ed Sanders's _Tendencies of the Synoptic 
Tradition_).

This of course focuses the issue of Farmer's defence of the originality of 
these twelve verses -- he is working with a neo-Griesbachian agenda according 
to which Mark's omission of  much of Matt. 28 and Luke 24 would be problematic. 
By defending the authenticity of these words, he is attempting to deal with a 
genuine difficulty for the Griesbach Hypothesis.

While I am writing, and since no-one else has done so, perhaps I might 
recommend my colleague David Parker's "The Ending's of Mark's Gospel" (_The 
Living Text of the Gospels_, Chapter 8).

Mark
--------------------------------------
Dr Mark Goodacre     mailto:M.S.Goodacre@bham.ac.uk
  Dept of Theology, University of Birmingham
 
Recommended New Testament Web Resources: 
  http://www.bham.ac.uk/theology/goodacre/links.htm
World Without Q:
  http://www.bham.ac.uk/theology/q
Homepage:
  http://www.bham.ac.uk/theology/goodacre

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Subject: Re: tc-list Mark 16:9-20
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In addition to the parallels that Bill mentioned from the canonical
gospels, I would add that vv. 17-20 of the longer ending seem to be a
pastiche of events primarily found in Acts (which of course is the sequel
of a canonical gospel).

v. 17 casting out demons - Acts 5:16; 8:7; 19:11-12
v. 17 speak in new tongues - Acts 10:46; 19:6 (2:4?)
v. 18 pick up snakes in their hands - Acts 28:3-5
v. 18 drink any deadly poison - no direct parallel but maybe an allusion
to Acts 28:3-5 since Acts describes Paul being bitten but not affected by
the viper
v. 18 lay their hands on the sick - Acts 5:15-16; 19:12; especially 28:8;
also possibly to 3:6-7 & 20:9-12
v. 19 Jesus taken up into heaven Acts 1:9-11 (Lk 24:50-53)
v. 19 sat down at right hand - Acts 2:33; 5:31; 7:55-56 (not to mention
other mentions in Gospels, Pauline epis., etc.)
v. 20 went out and proclaimed the good news everywhere - summary of the
missionary exploits elaborated on throughout Acts (especially Paul's
journeys)
v. 20 confirmed the message by signs - summary statements in Acts 2:43;
5:12; 6:8; 8:6, 13; 14:13; 15:12 repeatedly mention "signs" being done by
the apostles, Steven, Philip, Paul, Barnabas, et alia in confirmation of
their preaching.

Jeff Cate, Ph.D.
Associate Professor of Christian Studies
California Baptist University
Riverside, California 92508

On Thu, 22 Oct 1998 16:42:21 -0400 "William L. Petersen" <wlp1@psu.edu>
writes:
>Some observations on the "long" ending of Mark, which have not yet 
>been
>made on the list (although they are certainly in the literature):
>
>(1) The *internal* evidence would seem to suggest that the long ending
>(16:9-20) is a pastiche of material culled from the resurrection
>appearances in extant NT books:
>
>> v. 9 early on the first day of the week = Matt 28.1 or Mk. 16.2 or 
>Lk 24.1
>> v. 9: first to Mary M = John 20.1, 14, 18
>> v. 9: seven demons = Lk 8.2
>> v.10: etc., etc.
>> v. 12 = Luke's Emmaus episode
>> v. 14 = John 10.19-29
>> v. 15 = Matt 28.19
>> etc., etc.
>
>Virtually *every* detail of every *appearance* cited in the "long 
>ending"
>has a parallel in some other canonical gospel.  This is odd, for 
>unlike the
>other parallels between Mark and the other gospels (e.g., the 
>Anointing at
>Bethany)--in which the parallelism is extended and often 
>verbatim--here we
>find mere "echoes" of the other appearances:  enough to remind you of 
>the
>story, and let you identify it, but no "full" parallelism.
>
>If one wished to provide an ending for a gospel which--like Mark, if 
>it
>ended at 16.8--lacked (or had lost) a *satisfactory* ending, would 
>this not
>be precisely the way one would go about supplying an ending?  Would 
>one not
>harmonize the material from the other gospels?  (Recall that only John
>has--as does the longer ending of Mark--an appearance to Mary M 
>*first*.
>In Matt, Jesus first meets the "women" [28.9-10], while in Luke, the 
>two
>Emmaus guys are the first to see him.  Mark brings no "new" 
>information to
>us here, and must select one of the other gospel's "first" appearance 
>to be
>*his* "first" appearance.)
>
>This very different sort of parallelism and the technique of 
>referencing
>(enough so you know what's being referenced, but not a full parallel)
>argues *against* the authenticity of the "long" ending, by my 
>standards.
>The author of the long ending is, in my view, simply "cribbing" his
>appearances from the other gospels.
>
>(2) The unique stuff in the long ending, in vv. 17-18 (snakes & 
>poisons,
>etc.), while practiced by certain Christian groups today, does not--to 
>my
>knowledge--seem to have had *any* currency in Christian antiquity.  
>Justin,
>Origen, etc., etc., etc., don't seem to talk about it or urge it on 
>their
>followers.  If, however, the "long ending" were original, then these 
>would
>have been the part of the concluding verses of the oldest gospel (as 
>per
>the 4 source theory);   one might have expected more attention to have 
>been
>given to these remarkable activities...or, conversely, to have 
>cautioned
>against it (or have I missed a new test of faith at certain 
>seminaries?
>Faculty first, guys... [  ;-) ])...but they don't (at least as far as 
>I
>know the Fathers);  instead, they simply act as if it doesn't exist.  
>(Why?
> Because it probably didn't.)
>
>(3) The reference to Irenaeus shows that the long ending (IF it is 
>THIS
>ending, and not some other ending which ALSO contained the "right hand 
>of
>God" reference.... [recall that we've several endings floating around 
>here,
>something which, simply by itself, suggests a textual disturbance...]) 
>is
>old.  But the silence of all other early Fathers is curious--and 
>Irenaeus'
>reference is only to one part of one verse of the "long ending"--not a
>citation of it "en bloc."  (Note that while Irenaeus specifically 
>states
>the reference is from the "end of Mark" [might this be an attempt to
>legitimize the ending, and an interpolation into Irenaeus???], 
>"sitting at
>the right hand of God" is an image found in Heb. 10.12 and Col. 3.1,
>and--without the "seated" bit--found in many other NT references.   
>Again,
>I find this odd...  How often does Irenaeus cite a reference by 
>stating
>from *which* book he is drawing it, and *where*, specifically, in that 
>book
>he is drawing the citation???  "Methinks the good pater doeth give his
>source *too* precisely."
>
>(4) Regarding the Diatessaronic witnesses, I've not checked them all, 
>but
>Codex Fuldensis and the Liege Harmony have the long ending harmonized 
>in
>with the other material from the other gospels, as do the Arabic and 
>the
>Persian.  Ephrem's *Commentary,* however, lacks any reference...  
>Given the
>prominence of the ending in later MSS of Mark, it is not surprising to 
>find
>the long ending in some of the harmonies.  Ephrem's silence, however,
>matches that of Justin, Clement of Alexandria, Tertullian, and 
>Origen--to
>name only the most obvious.
>
>***
>
>The two questions for those who wish to defend the authenticity of the 
>long
>ending are (to my mind, at least):  (1) *Why* would it be omitted?  
>(2) Why
>are *all* of the appearances of Jesus in the "long ending" merely 
>truncated
>versions of appearances described elsewhere in the gospels?  This is
>singularly odd, for ALL the other gospels have "unique" 
>appearances--that
>is, appearances unique to that gospel:  Emmaus for Luke, to Mary Mag 
>and
>the other Mary outside the tomb for Matt, and to Mary Mag, as a 
>gardener,
>in John.  *Only Mark,* if you paste on the long ending, would not have 
>any
>distinctive (= "only in Mark") appearances.  This suggests to me that
>something is rotten on the rue Nablus.
>
>V. Taylor, *The Gospel according to St. Mark* has a good section on 
>the
>Greek text and the support (or lack thereof) for the long ending in 
>the
>early church.
>
>--Petersen, Penn State University.
>
>

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On Thu, 22 Oct 1998 16:42:21 -0400 "William L. Petersen" <wlp1@psu.edu>
writes:

>If one wished to provide an ending for a gospel which--like Mark, if 
>it ended at 16.8--lacked (or had lost) a *satisfactory* ending, would 
>this not be precisely the way one would go about supplying an ending? 
Would 
>one not harmonize the material from the other gospels?  
[snip]
>This very different sort of parallelism and the technique of 
>referencing (enough so you know what's being referenced, but not a full
parallel)
>argues *against* the authenticity of the "long" ending, by my standards.
>The author of the long ending is, in my view, simply "cribbing" his
>appearances from the other gospels.

Granting this line of argument (which has plausibility), this still would
not nullify a text-critical position such as held by Farmer, in which the
addition of the ending belongs to the pre-canonical or pre-circulation
stage of this gospel. One of course then has to determine at what date a
"canonical" or otherwise widely-circulated Mark began to emerge. 

I certainly have no problem in viewing the ending of Mark as a basic
summary of the resurrection appearances and paralleling much of what is
found in the other gospels (regardless of the Markan priority hypothesis
or the date of the ending). However, the issue of Markan authorship of
the ending properly belongs to higher criticism and probably is becoming
inappropriate for the tc-list, so I will try to conclude this line of
discussion before it departs textual criticism entirely.

Assuming the long ending only gives a "resurrection summary" of what is
found in the other gospels, why then were all the "extras" added to the
longer ending of Mark which go far beyond a simple harmonization of the
other resurrection accounts.  E.g., the seven demons derive from Lk. 8:2
and not from any resurrection narrative. 

Further, if a mere precis were intended, one would presume the summary to
be in harmony with and not blatantly contradict the appearance accounts
in the parallel gospels. Yet  the *Markan* appearance to the two walking
into the country (= the Emmaus road appearance in Lk 24) ends with a
statement that the assembled disciples "did NOT believe" the report of
the two witnesses. Yet the Lukan account not only does NOT have the
assembled disciples in unbelief, but in contrast, it is the *Eleven* who
confidently announce to the Emmaus Two that "The Lord has risen and
appeared to Simon!"  Would a mere summary precis end up giving such
blatantly opposite results rather than a close harmonization of the
accounts? 

The same could be said regarding the addition of "believing and baptized"
to the Matthean great commission. Why add extra material which alters or
contradicts the original statement?  Similarly, the catalogue of  "signs
following" is otherwise unparalleled in the other gospel accounts, as
well as the session on the right hand of God. 

How then does one account for "extra" material -- especially extra
material which contradicts the accounts from which it supposedly is drawn
-- if such is supposed to be a mere precis of the other gospel accounts?
Some of this material might be accounted for by drawing on more remote
parallels (for whatever reason), but not all of it, and certainly not the
contradictions. One of course could argue that the extra material came
from non-canonical sources, now lost, but in the absence of proof this is
more problematic than what it would attempt to solve.

>(2) The unique stuff in the long ending, in vv. 17-18 (snakes & 
>poisons, etc.), while practiced by certain Christian groups today, does
not--to 
>my knowledge--seem to have had *any* currency in Christian antiquity.  
>Justin, Origen, etc., etc., etc., don't seem to talk about it or urge it
on 
>their followers.  If, however, the "long ending" were original, then
these 
>would have been the part of the concluding verses of the oldest gospel
(as 
>per the 4 source theory);   one might have expected more attention to
have 
>been given to these remarkable activities...or, conversely, to have 
>cautioned against it (or have I missed a new test of faith at certain 
>seminaries?

We probably should ask Jim West about those mountain people in Tennessee
before deriving a final answer on those points. :-)  However, even if the
various sign gifts were not at issue in the 2nd century (though the
Montanist movement might indicate the contrary), it certainly is the case
that all of the signs except the drinking of poison are paralleled in the
book of Acts, and one could argue that the Markan ending, if not
original, at least had a basis for adding most of the signs to the long
ending by creating a precis from the signs in Acts. This still would not
account for the "extra" about drinking poisons, however.

>(Note that while Irenaeus specifically 
>states the reference is from the "end of Mark" [might this be an attempt
to
>legitimize the ending, and an interpolation into Irenaeus???], 
...
>I find this odd...  How often does Irenaeus cite a reference by  stating
>from *which* book he is drawing it, and *where*, specifically, in that
book
>he is drawing the citation???  "Methinks the good pater doeth give his
>source *too* precisely."

I would suggest this to be very much an overstatement. Why should not
Irenaeus be trusted here?  We generally operate on the principle that a
father's specific comments on a passage are more likely to be unaltered
than the NT text he quotes (since scribes were considered unlikely to
alter the comments as much as they might alter from memory the NT text
itself).  If Irenaeus says it is from Mark, apart from variants in the
patristic mss which might raise suspicion, there should be no reason to
claim interpolation in Irenaeus at this point.  Also, if Irenaeus is
assumed here to be interpolated in the absence of evidence, then what
about every other case where a father speaks? The text everywhere could
fall under similar suspicion, and nothing would remain certain in
patristic studies.

How often Irenaeus states which biblical book he quotes from, I haven't
counted. That Irenaeus does cite various OT and NT books by name on
various occasions *is* clear. In fact, at the beginning of the same
section in which Irenaeus mentions and quotes from the *ending* of
"Mark", he also cites and quotes Mark 1:1 as being the *beginning* of
that same gospel (Adv. Haer. 3.10.5). There are no variants which in
either case would suggest interpolation, and such should not be claimed
in the absence of compelling evidence.

>The two questions for those who wish to defend the authenticity of the
long
>ending are (to my mind, at least):  (1) *Why* would it be omitted?  
>(2) Why are *all* of the appearances of Jesus in the "long ending"
merely 
>truncated versions of appearances described elsewhere in the gospels? 
This is
>singularly odd, for ALL the other gospels have "unique" appearances
...
> *Only Mark,* if you paste on the long ending, would not have any
>distinctive (= "only in Mark") appearances.  This suggests to me that
>something is rotten on the rue Nablus.

As to Q.2 first -- certainly no rule states that a "valid" gospel has to
present unique material at any given point, let alone the specific item
of additional resurrection appearances. The very fact that the long
ending *does* include much unparalleled additional material (as noted
above) serves in its own way to satisfy the demand for something unique
in this ending. 

Regarding Q.1 -- Of course many people (not Petersen, since he has not
spoken to this point) have suggested that Mark originally did not end at
16:8, but continued on with some other longer ending, which original
ending was later lost (by accident or whatever; typical of what might
occur with the final leaf of a codex). The loss of the original long
ending then supposedly was supplemented by some non-Markan author(s) who
added the shorter or long ending or both to alleviate the loss. The idea
that the long ending was constructed as a precis summary of resurrection
appearances in the other three gospels would then fall in line with this
hypothesis.

Why then might not the converse be equally possible, namely that the long
ending we currently possess was original, and that a *few* mss happened
to lose their final page, thus ending with 16:8? (MS 2386 mentioned
earlier reflects this very situation). If this occurred on a very limited
scale, it then would be no surprise to find only a few extant witnesses
reflecting such an omission: so today we find Sinaiticus and (perhaps)
Vaticanus among the Greeks, sy-s, a single Sahidic ms and some Armenian
mss. These witnesses might each have shared the same fate of losing a
final leaf or (more likely) some of them were copied or translated from
common exemplars which had accidentally lost the final page of Mark. Some
MSS like Bobbiensis (it-k) may have supplied the shorter ending to
compensate for whatever defect lay in the exemplar before them.

If accidental cause for the omission can be a likely possibility (and I
see no reason why it cannot, given that some who do not favor the long
ending postulate the accidental loss of a now non-extant longer ending),
there is no need to seek further for intentional reasons which might
cause the omission of the long ending. Some modern commentators (e.g.,
Frank Stagg) seem to think it more "convenient" to have Mark end without
the sign gifts, since this helps to refute all the snake-handlers,
strychnine drinkers, and tongue-speakers of the modern era. Given the
abuses of the Montanist movement and the continuing threat of its revival
in the early church, there *could* have been adequate reason to omit or
at least to modify the long ending to some degree; but I do not argue
that this must be the case. 

The accidental hypothesis is preferable, especially when only two extant
mss in the entire Greek tradition are affected by the omission; both
Alexandrian; both lacking the support of the remaining Alexandrian
witnesses; one leaving a blank space implying at least a knowledge of the
existence of the long ending; and these otherwise being supported by a
mere handful of other versional witnesses. The short ending is another
matter, but I don't think there is anyone who claims it to be original,
despite its appearance in several Greek mss and it-k. 

This certainly does not solve the problem, but at least offers other
possibilities worth considering.

==============================================
Maurice A. Robinson
Professor of NT and Greek
Southeastern Baptist Theological Seminary
Wake Forest, North Carolina



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I have placed a new scribal font on my website as a companion to the DSSFont
designed
after 1QISa.  This one is based on the script of the Pesher Habakkuk.  Like all of
my scribal
fonts, it does require some "scribing" using your character spacing utility to raise
lameds
or lower finials and adjustment of point size to approximate the textual exemplar.

I hope it is useful.  The purpose of these fonts are to assist you in your
publications where
you would prefer to use the original script rather than modern square characters or
transliterations.  Their use in the classroom may assist your students in their
familiarity
with the original scripts.

You can download the font at http://www.historian.net/files.htm

Hope ya like it.

Jack


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On Thu, 22 Oct 1998 20:54:06 -0400 "R. David Large" <David@ezol.com>
writes:

>1) Because all arguments made by Byzantine supporters can be as 
>summarily dismissed as the readings they favor ...

Except of course when the very same arguments are made in favor of the
non-Byzantine reading, in which case they become "lucid" and
"compelling". 
:-)  

>2) Because only Byzantine supporters possess the unique mental flaws 
>requisite to dare peep or mutter a breath in defense of such an
(universally
>agreed) indefensible passage ...

That is it!  I have a mental flaw.  I *knew* there was an explanation
somewhere which might surpass "oddness".  
:-)

>3) Because only Byzantine supporters get this doggoned MAD ....

This point is totally wrong. I actually get only mildly amused. Usually
it is the other side who becomes enraged at pro-Byzantine intransigence. 
:-)


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Subject: Re: tc-list Mark 16:9-20
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On Fri, 23 Oct 1998 10:57:07 -0400 "William L. Petersen" <wlp1@psu.edu>
writes:

>(A) Unlike all other parallels among the gospels, where Mark gives a 
>full narrative (take a synopsis and look at the "Cleansing of the
Temple" 
>[Mark 11:15-19, parr.], "The Question about Jesus' Authority" [Mark 
>11:27-33, parr.], or the "Synoptic Apocalypse" [Mark 13, parr.]), and
the other
>gospels follow suit, here we would have *the only known case* where 
>Mark gives a series of "one-liners" 
        [snip]
> nowhere else (if I am wrong, please give me the reference...) do we
find 5 or 10 
>*words* in Mark being expanded in the parallel accounts into *22
verses*, as 
>happens with the Emmaus account.  

It might not be a "series", but quite obviously in the Temptation
account, Mark gives an extremely brief and succinct "one-line" account in
contrast with the other Synoptic Gospels (having respectively 11 and 13
verses as parallels to Mark's one). I'm not exactly convinced that Mark
had to operate under some rule which precluded succinct one-liners....

>(C) Vincent Taylor remarks on the non-Marcan style of the long ending...
>Taylor:  (p. 610):  "The vocabulary and style of this section show
clearly that it was >not written by Mark, but is based on a knowledge of
traditions found in Lk and Jn."  >He then proceeds to list a whole
catalogue of non-Marcan features (vocabulary,
>grammar, etc., etc.).  

And Burgon similarly (Last Twelve Verses, pp. 136-190) goes to the other
extreme in pointing out pro-Markan evidence in relation to the long
ending and also demonstrating by _reductio ad absurdum_ that the
*opening* 12 verses of Mark actually contain as much "non-Markan"
stylistic and vocabulary material as do the last 12 verses, even though
that section is of unquestioned authenticity. Burgon further notes that
there are *true* stylistic parallels between the opening verses of Mark's
gospel and the closing verses in the long ending. If Taylor is to be read
on the one hand, then Burgon should be read on the other.

>The only other possibility is that the long ending is "original"

:-)

>the statements of Jerome and Eusebius (that the long ending was lacking
in most >manuscripts known to them)

Again, see Burgon, pp. 38-57 for a very different understanding of the
testimony of Eusebius and Jerome.
 
>Arguing that the long ending is "original" requires one to abandon 
>this very logical and consistent pattern

Actually it only requires one to allow for "normal" patterns of
transmission, accidental omission, and localized regional variant
possibilities...

> it also requires one to answer the following questions:  
>(1) How does one explain its absence in the oldest MSS?  

Already discussed by me previously.

(2) How does one explain its non-Marcan style?  

Burgon's discussion has been mentioned above.

(3) How does one explain the silence of the Fathers on its remarkable,
distinctive 
>features

Also see Burgon.

>(e.g., v. 18)?  (4) How does one explain its "non-standard" parallel 
>style (i.e., not a full parallel, as we have elsewhere in Mark and the
other
>gospels, but just these very abbreviated "echoes" of the other 
>resurrection appearances)?  

Already discussed by me previously.

>(5) How does one prove that the passage is *not* what it appears to be: 
a catena of >appearances extracted (and condensed) from the other
gospels?

By the "extra material"; already discussed by me previously.


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This has been an interesting thread and a busy week has prevented me from
catching all of it.  How do the TC-listers feel about the theory that
the Yohannine appendix was originally the ending of Mark?

Jack


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From: "R. David Large" <David@ezol.com>
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>>3) Because only Byzantine supporters get this doggoned MAD ....
>
>This point is totally wrong. I actually get only mildly amused. Usually
>it is the other side who becomes enraged at pro-Byzantine intransigence.


Actually, this point was only made to inject a little humor into the debate.
Sarcasm is a little hard to convey in print ... it gets me in trouble some-
times :-) I do confess to mild bewilderment at those who seek to sweep
away any and all arguments for the originality of this passage on the basis
of, "Oh, you must be one of those pro-Byzantine folk!".

I guess I be one them there varmints ;-)

R. David Large
David@ezol.com




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My comments follow:


-----Original Message-----
From: William L. Petersen <wlp1@psu.edu>
To: tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu <tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu>
Date: Thursday, October 22, 1998 5:48 PM
Subject: tc-list Mark 16:9-20


>Some observations on the "long" ending of Mark, which have not yet been
>made on the list (although they are certainly in the literature):
>
>(1) The *internal* evidence would seem to suggest that the long ending
>(16:9-20) is a pastiche of material culled from the resurrection
>appearances in extant NT books:

[snip]

This is not so convincing to me as it might sound at the first, especially
when
one considers Mark's often succint and summary style. Witness the begin-
ning of his Gospel, especially 1:9-20, where in the space of 11 verses 4 ma-
jor events (Jesus' Baptism, Temptation, Commencement of Ministry and
Call of the Apostles), spanning about six months' time, are narrated for us.
Compare these 11 verses (200 words in NA-27) to Matthew who uses 26 ver-
ses (454 words in NA-27) or Luke's 73 verses (and whopping 1,169 words in
NA-27) to cover the same ground (albeit with surplus genealogical and other
material).

The pastiche idea is certainly compatible to the evidence, and I see no
problem
with these verses being any kind of post-resurrection summary-- even if
based
on the ample oral material at Mark's disposal. They are not, however,
intrinsical-
ly non-Marcan because of this summary quality.

>Virtually *every* detail of every *appearance* cited in the "long ending"
>has a parallel in some other canonical gospel.  This is odd, for unlike the
>other parallels between Mark and the other gospels (e.g., the Anointing at
>Bethany)--in which the parallelism is extended and often verbatim--here we
>find mere "echoes" of the other appearances:  enough to remind you of the
>story, and let you identify it, but no "full" parallelism.

The key word is *virtually*. There is some quite interesting original
material not,
it would seem, as easily explicable as mere synoptic cribbing. Material
which,
to my mind, savors more of original authorship than an effort to fill in the
blank.
Dr. Robinson's comments (which just arrived in my e-mailbox) address these
passages I have in mind more eloquently than I dare attempt, so I will defer
to
his contribution here. I might add that the ostensibly contradictory details
would,
along with the unique collocation of belief with baptism as prerequisite for
salva-
tion, certainly be the 'harder' type of internal evidence usually given
preference
among competing readings ... though (admittedly) the hardest reading of all
is
the Gospel ending at verse 8-- which methinks impossible rather than hardest
;-)


>If one wished to provide an ending for a gospel which--like Mark, if it
>ended at 16.8--lacked (or had lost) a *satisfactory* ending, would this not
>be precisely the way one would go about supplying an ending?  Would one not
>harmonize the material from the other gospels?

Perhaps and perhaps ... it is a plausible explanation, but not *necessary*
and, on
the basis of other factors, a stronger case for originality prevails (IMHO).

[snip]


>(2) The unique stuff in the long ending, in vv. 17-18 (snakes & poisons,
>etc.), while practiced by certain Christian groups today, does not--to my
>knowledge--seem to have had *any* currency in Christian antiquity.  Justin,
>Origen, etc., etc., etc., don't seem to talk about it or urge it on their
>followers.

No wonder! Never has 'walking by faith' been so dangerous :-)

[snip]

>"Methinks the good pater doeth give his source *too* precisely."


Hmmm ... I thought a Patristic reference was especially solid if it gave the
detailed reference of its source. Methinks "too precisely" perhaps because
"too Byzantine"?? ;-)

R. David Large
David@ezol.com




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Date: Fri, 23 Oct 1998 18:17:07 -0500
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Subject: Ending of John (Was: Re: tc-list Mark 16:9-20)
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On Fri, 23 Oct 1998, Jack Kilmon <jkilmon@historian.net> wrote:

>This has been an interesting thread and a busy week has prevented me from
>catching all of it.  How do the TC-listers feel about the theory that
>the Yohannine appendix was originally the ending of Mark?

This is only a personal feeling, but I don't think this is possible.
At least, the ending of John cannot have come *verbatim* from the
ending of Mark.

I won't claim to have done detailed vocabulary studies, but the
ending of John sounds "Johannine" to me. Not the theology, the
language. It's simple -- simple enough that even I can understand
it. :-) Writings from Mark don't sound that way.

I suppose it is possible that the final chapter came from Mark
with "Johannine" rewriting. But that's an awfully complex
explanation....

In any case, it's not a question on which textual criticism
can offer an opinion. And since I was just recently attacked
in another venue for being a poor theologian (which is absolutely
false; I'm not a theologian at all :-), I will stick with
what I know and say no more. :-)
-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-

                        Robert B. Waltz
                     waltzmn@skypoint.com

Want more loudmouthed opinions about textual criticism?
Try my web page: http://www.skypoint.com/~waltzmn
(A site inspired by the Encyclopedia of NT Textual Criticism)

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On Fri, 23 Oct 1998 16:55:48 -0700 Jack Kilmon <jkilmon@historian.net>
writes:


>This has been an interesting thread and a busy week has prevented me 
>from catching all of it.  How do the TC-listers feel about the theory
that
>the Yohannine appendix was originally the ending of Mark?

In the absence of any manuscript evidence to that effect, I don't..

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M A Robinson wrote:
> 
> On Fri, 23 Oct 1998 16:55:48 -0700 Jack Kilmon <jkilmon@historian.net>
> writes:
> 
> >This has been an interesting thread and a busy week has prevented me
> >from catching all of it.  How do the TC-listers feel about the theory
> that
> >the Yohannine appendix was originally the ending of Mark?
> 
> In the absence of any manuscript evidence to that effect, I don't..

It seems there are two elements to this.  First, whether John 21 was
original to 4G and second, if not, where did it originate.

John 21 does contain similarities of style with 4G and familiar
Yohannine
words unique to 4G. "The Sea of Tiberias" in 21:1 as a name for the
Sea of Galilee is unique to 4G.  The reference to "Thomas, the twin"
is unique to 4G as is the "beloved disciple."  The use of the word
"anthrakia" (21:9) has a NT usage only at Jn 18:18 and the grammatical
style is very similar.

The absence of ms evidence, as you suggest, can only tell us that
Ch 21 was part of 4G at the time of P66 and P75 near the turn of
the 3rd century.  This is the strongest evidence for TC since the
rule that "you can only go with wuccha got" is the "iron curtain"
of TC.  The evidence for the interpolation of 7:53-8:11 is clear
because of its absence in the ms before D.  Not so with 21.

>From a form standpoint, however, 21 is discontinuous from the
storyline of 1-20.  It seems odd that the disciples who have just
witnessed the risen Jesus then drop everything to go back to
Galilee to take up fishing where nowhere in 4G is it mentioned
that they were fisherman, a motif that originates in Mark.
This going back home to Galilee to fish is at odds with
ch 20 where "they went back to their homes" (20:10) in
the vicinity of Jerusalem, later to see Jesus again the
same day in Jerusalem.

Words which appear in this fishing motif of 21 do not
appear anywhere else in 4G which suggests this fishing motif
is not Yohannine.  There are a number of words used in
ch 21 not used in 1-20 but common to the synoptics.
21 is a mixture of Yohannine and synoptic themes.

I have to give serious consideration to the strong
argument Powell makes for 21 originating with Mark.
The "fishers of men" theme from Mark and the miraculous 
catch of fish from John appear as a single unit in Luke.

The first words spoken to a disciple in Mark is
"follow me."  The last words spoken by Jesus in John
21 is "follow me."

That John 21 could be a Yohannine rewrite of the ending
of Mark is certainly possible from the standpoint of
a number of arguments but, alas and alack, the
absence of any ms of John that excludes it leaves
this issue on the doorstep for TC.

Jack



-- 
______________________________________________

Min d'LA rokHEM l'maRAN yeSHUa meshyCHA niheYAH. maRAN aTHA

Jack Kilmon
jkilmon@historian.net

http://www.historian.net

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On a canon and authorship aside, it is of course possible that Mark was the
author of the 4th Gospel if one accepts P. Parkers assertions.

See P. Parker, "John the Son of Zebedee and the Fourth Gospel," Journal of
Biblical Literature 81 (1962): 35-43; idem "John and John Mark," Journal of
Biblical Literature 79 (1960): 97-110.

Parker makes a strong case for the Markan authorship of the 4th. Gospel,
but this largely requires a unique reading of Papias as well as a revision
of traditional synoptic issues (i.e. traditional Markan authorship and
Synoptic reliance). Of course this makes him hesitant to accept his own
arguments.  

Just an aside to the on-going Mark debate.

At 05:14 AM 10/24/98 -0500, you wrote:
>M A Robinson wrote:
>> 
>> On Fri, 23 Oct 1998 16:55:48 -0700 Jack Kilmon <jkilmon@historian.net>
>> writes:
>> 
>> >This has been an interesting thread and a busy week has prevented me
>> >from catching all of it.  How do the TC-listers feel about the theory
>> that
>> >the Yohannine appendix was originally the ending of Mark?
>> 
>> In the absence of any manuscript evidence to that effect, I don't..
>
>It seems there are two elements to this.  First, whether John 21 was
>original to 4G and second, if not, where did it originate.
>
>John 21 does contain similarities of style with 4G and familiar
>Yohannine
>words unique to 4G. "The Sea of Tiberias" in 21:1 as a name for the
>Sea of Galilee is unique to 4G.  The reference to "Thomas, the twin"
>is unique to 4G as is the "beloved disciple."  The use of the word
>"anthrakia" (21:9) has a NT usage only at Jn 18:18 and the grammatical
>style is very similar.
>
>The absence of ms evidence, as you suggest, can only tell us that
>Ch 21 was part of 4G at the time of P66 and P75 near the turn of
>the 3rd century.  This is the strongest evidence for TC since the
>rule that "you can only go with wuccha got" is the "iron curtain"
>of TC.  The evidence for the interpolation of 7:53-8:11 is clear
>because of its absence in the ms before D.  Not so with 21.
>
>>From a form standpoint, however, 21 is discontinuous from the
>storyline of 1-20.  It seems odd that the disciples who have just
>witnessed the risen Jesus then drop everything to go back to
>Galilee to take up fishing where nowhere in 4G is it mentioned
>that they were fisherman, a motif that originates in Mark.
>This going back home to Galilee to fish is at odds with
>ch 20 where "they went back to their homes" (20:10) in
>the vicinity of Jerusalem, later to see Jesus again the
>same day in Jerusalem.
>
>Words which appear in this fishing motif of 21 do not
>appear anywhere else in 4G which suggests this fishing motif
>is not Yohannine.  There are a number of words used in
>ch 21 not used in 1-20 but common to the synoptics.
>21 is a mixture of Yohannine and synoptic themes.
>
>I have to give serious consideration to the strong
>argument Powell makes for 21 originating with Mark.
>The "fishers of men" theme from Mark and the miraculous 
>catch of fish from John appear as a single unit in Luke.
>
>The first words spoken to a disciple in Mark is
>"follow me."  The last words spoken by Jesus in John
>21 is "follow me."
>
>That John 21 could be a Yohannine rewrite of the ending
>of Mark is certainly possible from the standpoint of
>a number of arguments but, alas and alack, the
>absence of any ms of John that excludes it leaves
>this issue on the doorstep for TC.
>
>Jack
>
>
>
>-- 
>______________________________________________
>
>Min d'LA rokHEM l'maRAN yeSHUa meshyCHA niheYAH. maRAN aTHA
>
>Jack Kilmon
>jkilmon@historian.net
>
>http://www.historian.net
>
>


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Huh?  Is there some manuscript evidence for this?  --Rod Mullen

At 04:55 PM 10/23/98 -0700, you wrote:
>
>
>This has been an interesting thread and a busy week has prevented me from
>catching all of it.  How do the TC-listers feel about the theory that
>the Yohannine appendix was originally the ending of Mark?
>
>Jack
>
>


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From: Jim Deardorff <deardorj@ucs.orst.edu>
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On Fri, 23 Oct 1998, Maurice A. Robinson wrote:

>[...]
> I certainly have no problem in viewing the ending of Mark as a basic
> summary of the resurrection appearances and paralleling much of what is
> found in the other gospels (regardless of the Markan priority hypothesis
> or the date of the ending). However, the issue of Markan authorship of
> the ending properly belongs to higher criticism and probably is becoming
> inappropriate for the tc-list, so I will try to conclude this line of
> discussion before it departs textual criticism entirely. [...]

It appears that your conclusion of this line of discussion didn't yet take
hold, Maurice. Let me then try to conclude it. Seriously, though, whether
or not Markan priority is correct in general *does* have bearing on TC.

> Assuming the long ending only gives a "resurrection summary" of what is
> found in the other gospels, why then were all the "extras" added to the
> longer ending of Mark which go far beyond a simple harmonization of the
> other resurrection accounts.  E.g., the seven demons derive from Lk. 8:2
> and not from any resurrection narrative. 
> 
> Further, if a mere precis were intended, one would presume the summary to
> be in harmony with and not blatantly contradict the appearance accounts
> in the parallel gospels. Yet  the *Markan* appearance to the two walking
> into the country (= the Emmaus road appearance in Lk 24) ends with a
> statement that the assembled disciples "did NOT believe" the report of
> the two witnesses. Yet the Lukan account not only does NOT have the
> assembled disciples in unbelief, but in contrast, it is the *Eleven* who
> confidently announce to the Emmaus Two that "The Lord has risen and
> appeared to Simon!"  Would a mere summary precis end up giving such
> blatantly opposite results rather than a close harmonization of the
> accounts? 
> 
> The same could be said regarding the addition of "believing and baptized"
> to the Matthean great commission. Why add extra material which alters or
> contradicts the original statement? [...]

The following scenario is consistent with the external evidence or
tradition that Matthew in a Hebraic form preceded Mark:

1) The writer of Mark then had no other post-crucifixion accounts to guide
him than what was in Hebraic Matthew. For various fairly evident reasons
he did not trust Matthew's account at all from Mt 28:9 on, and having no
others to substitute for it, he omitted it. At the same time he stressed
the theme of fear, as P. Parker has emphasized Mark does in connection
with the Jewish disciples and witnesses. 

2) After Mark and Luke appeared on the scene, it became imperative that
Hebraic Matthew be translated into Greek if it were to retain its
authority and were to be available to gentiles.  Hebraic Matthew had
itself lacked its longer ending, including Mt 28:19-20. The longer ending
to Matthew was added (to Greek Matthew) at this time, along with other,
more minor, alterations. Hebraic Matthew was retired from circulation as
soon as possible after Greek Matthew came out.

3) Considerably later, Mark's longer ending was similarly added, most
likely by another person, drawing upon the post-crucifixion accounts of
the other gospels. But it was not so well attested, being later in time
than the appearance of Greek Matthew and due to too many copies of earlier
Mark already being in existence.  The greater emphasis in Mark (in the
Mark without the longer ending) upon baptism than in Matthew accounts for
the stronger role of baptism in its longer ending.

Jim Deardorff


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Jim Deardorff wrote:
> 

> 
> The following scenario is consistent with the external evidence or
> tradition that Matthew in a Hebraic form preceded Mark:
> 
> 1) The writer of Mark then had no other post-crucifixion accounts to guide
> him than what was in Hebraic Matthew. For various fairly evident reasons
> he did not trust Matthew's account at all from Mt 28:9 on, and having no
> others to substitute for it, he omitted it. At the same time he stressed
> the theme of fear, as P. Parker has emphasized Mark does in connection
> with the Jewish disciples and witnesses.
> 

Jim:

I cannot see any evidence, from a linguistic standpoint, that Matthew
was ever written in Hebrew.  Other than an Aramaic substratum to the
"sayings" material, Matthew seems to be all compositional Greek to me.
In fact, given Matthew's treatments of the sayings, I am not sure
that he was not using even a Greek translation of those.  His
sometimes clumsy transliterations of Aramaic words and his
reliance on the LXX sometimes makes me doubt that he was even
competent in a Semitic language.

I am convinced that the "Hebrew (Aramaic) Matthew" of Eusebius'
citation of Papias was an early sayings source and not the
Gospel of Matthew.

Jack

-- 
______________________________________________

Min d'LA rokHEM l'maRAN yeSHUa meshyCHA niheYAH. maRAN aTHA

Jack Kilmon
jkilmon@historian.net

http://www.historian.net

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In message <36320F84.CEF4DA20@historian.net>, Jack Kilmon
<jkilmon@historian.net> writes
>I cannot see any evidence, from a linguistic standpoint, that Matthew
>was ever written in Hebrew.  Other than an Aramaic substratum to the
>"sayings" material, Matthew seems to be all compositional Greek to me.
>In fact, given Matthew's treatments of the sayings, I am not sure
>that he was not using even a Greek translation of those.  His
>sometimes clumsy transliterations of Aramaic words and his
>reliance on the LXX sometimes makes me doubt that he was even
>competent in a Semitic language.

It is very clear that the author of Matthew relied on the LXX, but could
you give me some examples of clumsy transliterations of Aramaic words
please?

Assuming Markan priority, it seems unlikely to me that Matthew and Luke
had Mark 16:9-20 available to them in its present form. They diverge
from that and from each other much more than they diverge from Mark
16:1-8. 


>I am convinced that the "Hebrew (Aramaic) Matthew" of Eusebius'
>citation of Papias was an early sayings source and not the
>Gospel of Matthew.




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As many have pointed out, this is way off the track of TC, but...

><jkilmon@historian.net> writes
>>I cannot see any evidence, from a linguistic standpoint, that Matthew
>>was ever written in Hebrew.  Other than an Aramaic substratum to the
>>"sayings" material, Matthew seems to be all compositional Greek to me.

Indeed, given that both of Matthew's primary sources (i.e. Q and Mark) were
themselves in Greek it seems highly unlikely that the "original" Matthew
would itself have been written in anything other than Greek.

>>I am convinced that the "Hebrew (Aramaic) Matthew" of Eusebius'
>>citation of Papias was an early sayings source and not the
>>Gospel of Matthew.

This is a very important point, usually neglected by the proponents of a
putative "Hebrew original Matthew".  That is that the logic --the line of
argument-- that supports Papias' "saying collection" being a Hebrew
proto-Matthew is precisely the same logic that would support the collection
being identified with the Synoptics Saying Source.

Now, I don't think anyone has strongly argued that "Q" was in fact what
Papias was writing about.  But, nonetheless the logic --and the evidence--
is identical.  (In fact, it is arguably stronger given that we have much
independent evidence supporting the existence of the SSS and virtually none
supporting the existence of the proto-Matthew).



--
Nichael Cramer
nichael@sover.net                        deep autumn--   
http://www.sover.net/~nichael/                   my neighbor what does she do

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>On Sat, 24 Oct 1998 12:33:56 -0500 Jack Kilmon <jkilmon@historian.net>
writes:

>>Jim Deardorff wrote:
>> The following scenario is consistent with the external evidence or
>> tradition that Matthew in a Hebraic form preceded Mark:

>I cannot see any evidence, from a linguistic standpoint, that Matthew
>was ever written in Hebrew.  Other than an Aramaic substratum to the
>"sayings" material, Matthew seems to be all compositional Greek to me.
>In fact, given Matthew's treatments of the sayings, I am not sure
>that he was not using even a Greek translation of those.

I am thankful that I am now (I trust) out of this discussion; but to show
the peculiarities and whims affecting each of us as individuals: after my
sharp disagreement with Kilmon regarding Jn 21, I now end up for the most
part in agreement with Kilmon regarding the Hebraic Matthew hypothesis
and its supposed effect on the ending of Mark. 

At least my reasoning in both cases remains consistent -- lack of direct
manuscript evidence precludes very much speculation as to what might have
been (C.C. Torrey or C.S.C. Williams to the contrary).
 
>I am convinced that the "Hebrew (Aramaic) Matthew" of Eusebius'
>citation of Papias was an early sayings source and not the
>Gospel of Matthew.

Same here, except I am not fully convinced as to exactly *what* Papias
really meant, even though I am quite certain it was not a Hebrew or
Aramaic gospel of Matthew.

==============================================================
Maurice A. Robinson, Ph. D. 
Professor of Greek and New Testament
Southeastern Baptist Theological Seminary
Wake Forest, North Carolina, USA

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On Sat, 24 Oct 1998 05:14:45 -0500 Jack Kilmon <jkilmon@historian.net>
writes:
>M A Robinson wrote:

Since there is no text-critical material to discuss here, I will avoid
much comment on Jn 21. The arguments for the pre-canonical stages and
whether it is an appendix, etc., probably are more appropriate for
b-greek or another forum.

>The absence of ms evidence, as you suggest, can only tell us that
>Ch 21 was part of 4G at the time of P66 and P75 near the turn of
>the 3rd century.  

It doesn't even tell us that much, since P75 is not even extant to that
point (p66 extends in fragments to Jn 21:9). One could, however,
reasonably presume that P75 would have agreed with every other known
witness in including that chapter. We do know, textually, that ch. 21 is
part of all the Greek witnesses which we possess and also all the
versional witnesses. No source out there omits Jn 21, and all speculation
regarding the structure and composition of the fourth gospel reverts back
to the gray area involving pre-transmissional history.

>This is the strongest evidence for TC since the
>rule that "you can only go with wuccha got" is the "iron curtain"
>of TC.  

A quite reasonable rule, in my opinion, since it tends to prevent or at
least mollify overly-wild speculation which goes beyond the preserved
evidence.

>The evidence for the interpolation of 7:53-8:11 is clear
>because of its absence in the ms before D.  

I doubt whether anyone would think that I would concur with this view.
:-)  Neither that I would consider the D-text of the Pericope Adulterae
to reflect the original form of the text. What the original form of the
text is, however, I do not have a clue at this point, since there is no
"Byzantine" form of the text which dominates in this passage.

As for the period antedating D, there are precisely four extant Greek MS
witnesses:  P66, P75, Aleph, and B -- all Egyptian and three of them
textually related. From the same century as D are A C T and W, all of
which omit, but the only one of which is the odd one out textually is A,
the others also being predominantly Alexandrian here. For some of us the
question regarding omission among the localized Alexandrian texttype and
its primary witnesses is of more significance than the possibility of
interpolation. But this discussion I cannot pursue further, since I am
swamped with a plethora of detail in hand that I slowly and meticulously
have to wade through before  reaching final conclusions regarding the
text of the PA..

>It seems odd that the disciples who have just
>witnessed the risen Jesus then drop everything to go back to
>Galilee to take up fishing where nowhere in 4G is it mentioned
>that they were fisherman

John often presupposes the existence of and a reader's familiarity with
the other canonical gospels. This can be  demonstrated: e.g., in the
trial before Pilate in John,  the question, "Are you a King" (Jn 18:33)
comes apparently out of thin air or Pilate's mind -- until one notes that
the Lukan account (Lk 23:2) has the crowd making the specific charge that
Jesus claims to be a King in opposition to Caesar, which does not occur
in John (cf. Jn. 18:29-30). So there should be no problem if John
presumes a familiarity not only with the fact that some disciples were
fishers, but also that they were specifically commanded in Mt and Mark to
go into Galilee and wait for an appearance.  

>This going back home to Galilee to fish is at odds with
>ch 20 where "they went back to their homes" (20:10) in
>the vicinity of Jerusalem, later to see Jesus again the
>same day in Jerusalem.

It is only Peter and John returning from the tomb on Resurrection Sunday
back to wherever they and the other disciples are staying during the
feast of Unleavened Bread.....where does this "returning to their homes"
come from?  I know the KJV says that ("unto their own home"), but the
Greek says only APHLQON OUN PALIN PROS (E)AUTOUS OI MAQHTAI, and
certainly reflects nothing about their actual homes or city of residence.
Also, since the gospels (including John) all agree that the initial
resurrection appearances occurred in Jerusalem on that Sunday, and since
Mt/Mk make it clear that there also were to be appearances in Galilee,
and given the comment in Acts that there were 40 days of appearances -- 
there should be nothing at all surprising about the Galilee fishing
expedition in Jn 21, given that John does presuppose knowledge of the
other gospel material. 

>That John 21 could be a Yohannine rewrite of the ending
>of Mark is certainly possible from the standpoint of
>a number of arguments but, alas and alack, the
>absence of any ms of John that excludes it leaves
>this issue on the doorstep for TC.

Actually from a text-critical standpoint, the door is closed, and the
issue will likely remain on the doorstep, since TC really has nothing to
do with it.

==============================================================
Maurice A. Robinson, Ph. D. 
Professor of Greek and New Testament
Southeastern Baptist Theological Seminary
Wake Forest, North Carolina, USA.


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Also moving beyond the tc-list proper, but with some significance....

On Sat, 24 Oct 1998 19:38:16 +0100 Steven Carr
<Steven@bowness.demon.co.uk> writes:

>Assuming Markan priority, it seems unlikely to me that Matthew and Luke
>had Mark 16:9-20 available to them in its present form. They diverge
>from that and from each other much more than they diverge from Mark
>16:1-8. 

But are you not allowing Markan priority (source criticism) to drive the
conclusion (text-criticism) in such a case? Are the divergences of Mt and
Lk from Mk in regard to their long ending parallels being made the test
of Markan authenticity?  It seems that this is placing the proverbial
cart (higher criticism) before the horse (lower criticism), and I wonder
whether this should be the case when merely attempting to establish
textual authenticity of the "autograph" or "original canonical form" or
whatever in Mark itself..

What then would occur should one follow Griesbach (as e.g., John Wenham)
in arguing Matthean priority? Or Robert L. Lindsey in arguing Lukan
priority? Or Eta Linnemann in arguing no source dependency whatsoever? In
the first two cases, the hypothesis of "Markan abridgement" could apply,
and the longer ending of Mark might find support; but this likely would
be just as illegitimate an imposition of higher over lower criticism, and
lead to no valid results within the field of textual criticism. I thus
remain unconvinced of the wisdom or sufficiency of such an approach as
opposed to dealing with the textual and transmissional evidence directly.

==============================================================
Maurice A. Robinson, Ph. D. 
Professor of Greek and New Testament
Southeastern Baptist Theological Seminary
Wake Forest, North Carolina, USA

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Jack,

Your theory (which personally I find improbable based on textual and
stylistic grounds) does raise an interesting question regarding the
origination of *all* the endings of Mark. The reader of Mark expects an
appearance in Galillee (to Peter?) based on Mk 14:28 and 16:7. I would
presume that those references are what lead you to concoct the notion of
John 21 as a rewrite of an unknown, original ending of Mark in the first
place.

Quite curiously, none of our extant endings of Mark [nothing beyond 16:8;
long; short; Freer Logion] mention Galilee or Peter specifically.
Matthew's Gospel picks up on the need to mention an appearance in Galilee
(Mt 26:32; 28:7, 10) and does so (Mt 28:16). The scribe of Mk 16:9-20 for
whatever reason didn't sense the same need to mention an appearance in
Galilee, even though the long ending is based on sources other than Mark,
presumeably including Matthew which did address the anticipation for a
Galilean appearance.

Therefore, I see this lack of a specific mention of Galilee in 16:9-20 as
one of many indications of the non-Markan style of the long ending
(granted, this one is an argument from silence). In light of Mk 14:28 and
16:7, it seems quite difficult to explain 16:9-20 as originally part of
Mark. If 16:9-20 originally followed 16:8, then why no mention of an
appearance in Galilee when 16:9-20 presumes to summarize for the reader a
wide spectrum of Jesus' appearances? Was the evangelist so careless to
forget to mention an appearance of Jesus in Galilee after such bold
statements in 14:28 and 16:7? Or did the scribe of 16:9-20 simply not
clue in to the refs in 14:28 and 16:7 as he/she attempted to compile
post-resurrection episodes from other sources?

BTW, none of the references in Mark (or Matthew for that matter)
necessarily anticipate a private meeting of Jesus and Peter like we find
in Jn 21:15-22. In Mt 26:32; 28:7, 10; Mk 14:28; 16:7, the anticipated
appearance in Galilee is to be to you (pl.) (HUMAS), i.e., Peter and the
other disciples, not you (sg.), i.e., not necessarily to Peter alone.

Jeff Cate, Ph.D.
Associate Professor of Christian Studies
California Baptist University
Riverside, California 92508

On Sat, 24 Oct 1998 05:14:45 -0500 Jack Kilmon <jkilmon@historian.net>
writes:
>M A Robinson wrote:
>> 
>> On Fri, 23 Oct 1998 16:55:48 -0700 Jack Kilmon 
><jkilmon@historian.net>
>> writes:
>> 
>> >This has been an interesting thread and a busy week has prevented 
>me
>> >from catching all of it.  How do the TC-listers feel about the 
>theory
>> that
>> >the Yohannine appendix was originally the ending of Mark?
>> 
>> In the absence of any manuscript evidence to that effect, I don't..
>
>It seems there are two elements to this.  First, whether John 21 was
>original to 4G and second, if not, where did it originate.
>
>John 21 does contain similarities of style with 4G and familiar
>Yohannine
>words unique to 4G. "The Sea of Tiberias" in 21:1 as a name for the
>Sea of Galilee is unique to 4G.  The reference to "Thomas, the twin"
>is unique to 4G as is the "beloved disciple."  The use of the word
>"anthrakia" (21:9) has a NT usage only at Jn 18:18 and the grammatical
>style is very similar.
>
>The absence of ms evidence, as you suggest, can only tell us that
>Ch 21 was part of 4G at the time of P66 and P75 near the turn of
>the 3rd century.  This is the strongest evidence for TC since the
>rule that "you can only go with wuccha got" is the "iron curtain"
>of TC.  The evidence for the interpolation of 7:53-8:11 is clear
>because of its absence in the ms before D.  Not so with 21.
>
>>From a form standpoint, however, 21 is discontinuous from the
>storyline of 1-20.  It seems odd that the disciples who have just
>witnessed the risen Jesus then drop everything to go back to
>Galilee to take up fishing where nowhere in 4G is it mentioned
>that they were fisherman, a motif that originates in Mark.
>This going back home to Galilee to fish is at odds with
>ch 20 where "they went back to their homes" (20:10) in
>the vicinity of Jerusalem, later to see Jesus again the
>same day in Jerusalem.
>
>Words which appear in this fishing motif of 21 do not
>appear anywhere else in 4G which suggests this fishing motif
>is not Yohannine.  There are a number of words used in
>ch 21 not used in 1-20 but common to the synoptics.
>21 is a mixture of Yohannine and synoptic themes.
>
>I have to give serious consideration to the strong
>argument Powell makes for 21 originating with Mark.
>The "fishers of men" theme from Mark and the miraculous 
>catch of fish from John appear as a single unit in Luke.
>
>The first words spoken to a disciple in Mark is
>"follow me."  The last words spoken by Jesus in John
>21 is "follow me."
>
>That John 21 could be a Yohannine rewrite of the ending
>of Mark is certainly possible from the standpoint of
>a number of arguments but, alas and alack, the
>absence of any ms of John that excludes it leaves
>this issue on the doorstep for TC.
>
>Jack
>
>
>
>-- 
>______________________________________________
>
>Min d'LA rokHEM l'maRAN yeSHUa meshyCHA niheYAH. maRAN aTHA
>
>Jack Kilmon
>jkilmon@historian.net
>
>http://www.historian.net
>

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From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Sun Oct 25 09:37:08 1998
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Jeff Cate wrote:
> 
> Jack,
> 
> Your theory (which personally I find improbable based on textual and
> stylistic grounds) does raise an interesting question regarding the
> origination of *all* the endings of Mark. The reader of Mark expects an
> appearance in Galillee (to Peter?) based on Mk 14:28 and 16:7. I would
> presume that those references are what lead you to concoct the notion of
> John 21 as a rewrite of an unknown, original ending of Mark in the first
> place.
> 

Actually, I didn't concoct it Jeff, but I like intriguing speculations
and Evan Powell's "Lost Gospel" is very convincing.  I think it very
likely that none of the various Markan endings are original to the
autograph and that there are two possibilities:

1. The original ending was lost.
2. There never was an ending.

Or are there just two?  There is a textual witness to Mark that may
give us the ending.  Matthew!  If we accept that Matthew used
Mark, didn't he also use the ending?  If we go to Matthew and
extract the ending, would we get something like......

Mt.28:9 (Mark 16:9)   And Jesus himself met them and said,
                      Good Morning.
Mt.28:9 (Mark 16:10)  And they went to him and clasped his feet,
                      and bowed to the ground before him.
Mt.28:10 (Mark 16:11) Jesus said to them, you need not be afraid
Mt.28:10 (Mark 16:12) Go and tell my brothers to go to Galilee
                      and they will see me there.
Mt. 28:8 (Mark 16:13) And they went with great joy and ran to
                      tell his disciples.
Mt.28:16 (Mark 16:14) And the eleven disciples went to Galilee
                      to the mountain to which Jesus had directed
                      them.
Mt.28:19 (Mark 16:15  And Jesus came up to them and said, go and
                      preach the good news to all the heathen.
                      I will always be with you, to the end.

Now just put it in Markan Greek and ya gottit! Nuttin to it (g)

Jack
-- 
______________________________________________

Min d'LA rokHEM l'maRAN yeSHUa meshyCHA niheYAH. maRAN aTHA

Jack Kilmon
jkilmon@historian.net

http://www.historian.net

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Subject: Re: tc-list Mark 16:9-20
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>Actually, I didn't concoct it Jeff, but I like intriguing speculations
>and Evan Powell's "Lost Gospel" is very convincing.  I think it very
>likely that none of the various Markan endings are original to the
>autograph and that there are two possibilities:

Maybe, concoct wasn't the right word. I too like to invest intriguing
theories since that's how we can avoid overlooking the obvious. I haven't
read Powell. I'm curious how he explains the current status of the ms
evidence for Mk and Jn as well as sees Jn 21 as a "rewrite" of an
original ending of Mark. "Rewrite" would be quite an understatement due
to the Johannine themes in the passage.

Jeff Cate, Ph.D.
Associate Professor of Christian Studies
California Baptist University
Riverside, California 92508

>
>1. The original ending was lost.
>2. There never was an ending.
>
>Or are there just two?  There is a textual witness to Mark that may
>give us the ending.  Matthew!  If we accept that Matthew used
>Mark, didn't he also use the ending?  If we go to Matthew and
>extract the ending, would we get something like......
>
>Mt.28:9 (Mark 16:9)   And Jesus himself met them and said,
>                      Good Morning.
>Mt.28:9 (Mark 16:10)  And they went to him and clasped his feet,
>                      and bowed to the ground before him.
>Mt.28:10 (Mark 16:11) Jesus said to them, you need not be afraid
>Mt.28:10 (Mark 16:12) Go and tell my brothers to go to Galilee
>                      and they will see me there.
>Mt. 28:8 (Mark 16:13) And they went with great joy and ran to
>                      tell his disciples.
>Mt.28:16 (Mark 16:14) And the eleven disciples went to Galilee
>                      to the mountain to which Jesus had directed
>                      them.
>Mt.28:19 (Mark 16:15  And Jesus came up to them and said, go and
>                      preach the good news to all the heathen.
>                      I will always be with you, to the end.
>
>Now just put it in Markan Greek and ya gottit! Nuttin to it (g)
>
>Jack
>-- 
>______________________________________________
>
>Min d'LA rokHEM l'maRAN yeSHUa meshyCHA niheYAH. maRAN aTHA
>
>Jack Kilmon
>jkilmon@historian.net
>
>http://www.historian.net
>

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From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Sun Oct 25 13:21:22 1998
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From: Jim Deardorff <deardorj@ucs.orst.edu>
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On Sat, 24 Oct 1998, Jack Kilmon wrote:

> Jim Deardorff wrote:
> 
> > The following scenario is consistent with the external evidence or
> > tradition that Matthew in a Hebraic form preceded Mark:
> > 
> > 1) The writer of Mark then had no other post-crucifixion accounts to guide
> > him than what was in Hebraic Matthew. For various fairly evident reasons
> > he did not trust Matthew's account at all from Mt 28:9 on, and having no
> > others to substitute for it, he omitted it. At the same time he stressed
> > the theme of fear, as P. Parker has emphasized Mark does in connection
> > with the Jewish disciples and witnesses.
 
> Jim:
> 
> I cannot see any evidence, from a linguistic standpoint, that Matthew
> was ever written in Hebrew.  Other than an Aramaic substratum to the
> "sayings" material, Matthew seems to be all compositional Greek to me.

Jack,

It's pretty plausible that if Matthew had been written first in Greek,
its Sea (QALLASA) of Galilee would have been the Lake (LIMNH) of Luke.
This is an example occurring in narration, not just in sayings -- an
example of non-compositional Greek.

The "fell on their faces" type of Aramaism occurs at four spots in
Matthew. In keeping with the basics of the Augustinian tradition, the
authors of Mark and Luke are seen as having perpetuated this Aramaism.

There's another weak point in your argument: the sayings from an original
written "sayings" source do need to have had their own contexts, and those
contexts would also have been written in Aramaic, and constitute
narration. Such narrative evidently was translated into Greek at some
point.

This also responds to Nichael, who wrote:

>...the logic -- the line of argument -- that supports Papias' "saying
>collection" being a Hebrew proto-Matthew is precisely the same logic that
>would support the collection being identified with the Synoptics Saying
>Source [SSS]. 

However, the SSS sayings themselves, being in writing, would originally
have been embedded within narration. Otherwise, the various questions by
the disciples, scribes, Pharisees... could not have been linked to Jesus'
replies. Try it some time: take just the sayings -- the discourse, the
questions and answers -- scramble them up in whichever order, and then try
to make sense of them. So I see logic as being on the side of Papias'
Logia being a Hebrew or Aramaic source, which after editing led to
Hebraic Matthew. 

A key point that has been missed by several, however, is that Hebraic
Matthew was translated into Greek at some point. This might have occurred
before the second synoptic gospel was written, or before the third, or
only after the third gospel was written. The latter is most plausible, as
the motivation for Hebraic Matthew to be set into Greek would have been
greatest at that point. So how would you revise your argumentation, Jack,
to take this into account -- the translator of Hebraic Matthew into Greek
having (the gospels of) Mark and Luke on hand when doing his job?

> In fact, given Matthew's treatments of the sayings, I am not sure
> that he was not using even a Greek translation of those.  His
> sometimes clumsy transliterations of Aramaic words and his
> reliance on the LXX sometimes makes me doubt that he was even
> competent in a Semitic language.

It should be evident also that the translator of Matthew's Hebraic
scriptural citations would likely have made use of the LXX, since in it
the translation had already been done for him, and in using it he would be
"getting it right." But a lot of Matthew's scriptural citations and
allusions had been stretched or distorted too much by its author for the
translator to be able to use the LXX very much on them. 

The above is in response also to Steven Carr, who wrote:

>It is very clear that the author of Matthew relied on the LXX...

Replace "author" with "translator" or with "translator or author," and
then this would cover the possibilities. 

Jim Deardorff


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On Sun, 25 Oct 1998 08:58:56 -0600 Jack Kilmon <jkilmon@historian.net>
writes:

>1. The original ending was lost.
>2. There never was an ending.

>Or are there just two?  There is a textual witness to Mark that may
>give us the ending.  Matthew!  If we accept that Matthew used
>Mark, didn't he also use the ending?  If we go to Matthew and
>extract the ending, would we get something like......
>
>Mt.28:9 (Mark 16:9)   And Jesus himself met them and said, Good Morning.
>Mt.28:9 (Mark 16:10)  And they went to him and clasped his feet, and
bowed to the > ground before him.
>Mt.28:10 (Mark 16:11) Jesus said to them, you need not be afraid
>Mt.28:10 (Mark 16:12) Go and tell my brothers to go to Galilee and they
will see me >there.
>Mt. 28:8 (Mark 16:13) And they went with great joy and ran to tell his
disciples.
>Mt.28:16 (Mark 16:14) And the eleven disciples went to Galilee to the
mountain to >which Jesus had directed them.
>Mt.28:19 (Mark 16:15  And Jesus came up to them and said, go and preach
the > >good news to all the heathen. I will always be with you, to the
end.

Thank you Jack. 
Griesbach is justified, albeit in reverse. :-) 

You have made a good case (though arguing in the opposite direction) for
the third possibility, namely that the long ending of Mark is original. 
Matthean priority and Markan abridgement fit the parallels cited quite
nicely. The abridgement hypothesis, however, still does not explain the
Lukan parallels within the long ending, so this is not a complete
solution by a long shot, but certainly can stand in support of the long
ending as original to Mark, for those who might choose to see it that
way.

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On Sun, 25 Oct 1998 01:04:48 -0700 jeffcate@juno.com (Jeff Cate) writes:

> The reader of Mark expects 
>an appearance in Galilee (to Peter?) based on Mk 14:28 and 16:7. 

>Quite curiously, none of our extant endings of Mark . .. . mention
Galilee or Peter 
>specifically. . . . The scribe of Mk 16:9-20 for whatever reason didn't
sense the same >need to mention an appearance in Galilee, even though the
long ending is based 
>on sources other than Mark, presumably including Matthew which did 
>address the anticipation for a Galilean appearance.

>Therefore, I see this lack of a specific mention of Galilee in 16:9-20 
>as one of many indications of the non-Markan style of the long ending 

Something here is non-sequitur -- IF the long ending of Mark is
non-Markan, and (as has been suggested) IF the long ending is merely a
summary "cribbed" from the other gospels, then the *lack* of a Galilean
appearance in the long ending should be inexplicable, assuming a
wholesale borrowing and abridgement from the other three gospels. 

It seems a difficult task to maintain two contradictory opinions, on the
one hand claiming that the existence of parallels in the long ending
argues direct dependency on and abridgment of existing materials, but on
the other hand claiming that the inclusion of unique material or lack
thereof (as in the non-mention of Galilee) implies an identical
inauthenticity of the passage..  

I would like to know exactly *what* would have to be included or excluded
from the long ending of Mark which might provide clear evidence of Markan
*authenticity.* My more corrupt nature suspects that the only evidence
which might suggest authenticity would be if Codex Vaticanus had included
the long ending  instead of leaving a blank space. Had that occurred, I
am certain that a plethora of internal argumentation would exist in favor
of Markan authenticity rather than the reverse :-)

>If 16:9-20 originally followed 16:8, then why no mention 
>of an appearance in Galilee when 16:9-20 presumes to summarize for the 
>reader a wide spectrum of Jesus' appearances? 

This indeed is a good question, but I suspect it belongs more to exegesis
and hermeneutics. If the parallels are followed (and summary dependency
must allow for this), then the commission in Mk 16:15ff in fact *is* a
Galilean appearance, even if not specifically stated (cf. Mt 28:16,
19ff). 

The only real question to be answered in such a case is whether the
author of the long ending (or Mark as the case may be) was under any
obligation to specifically identify locations. It appears that he was
not:  in the long ending Jerusalem is not mentioned, though it certainly
is the venue for 16:9-11, 14; Emmaus is not mentioned in regard to
16:12-13; nor is Jerusalem mentioned as the location from which the
Ascension took place in 16:19-20; Galilee likewise is not mentioned in
the 16:15ff section. Now, *why* Mark or the author chose to write as he
did remains a problem regardless of whether the long ending is considered
authentic or not. Do I have an answer? No -- but then I do not consider
this a text-critical question as much as an interpretative one, and I
often am quite incertain regarding interpretative difficulties. As far as
I can guess, it likely was "known" (from oral tradition?) that the great
commission was delivered in Galilee; if so, then that which was common
knowledge did not have to be stated particularly in Mark's compressed
"summary statement."

>a private meeting of Jesus and Peter like we 
>find in Jn 21:15-22. In Mt 26:32; 28:7, 10; Mk 14:28; 16:7, the 
>anticipated appearance in Galilee is to be to you (pl.) (HUMAS), i.e., 
>Peter and the other disciples, not you (sg.), i.e., not necessarily to 
>Peter alone.

Is anybody taking the time to read the full context of Jn 21? *Where*
does John 21 claim or even suggest that this is a "private" meeting?
Jesus certainly has something to say directly to Peter in vv.15ff (hence
the singular pronoun), but it is in the company of at least (Jn. 21:2)
Thomas, Nathanael, James and John, and "two other disciples". This group
went fishing with Peter (21:3), were with Peter when he jumped into the
sea and swam ashore (21:7), and this group had already rowed back in the
ship and rejoined Peter and Jesus on the beach for breakfast (21:8-14).
When all of them had finished dining (21:15 HRISTHSAN), Jesus then
addressed Peter in the presence of them all (there is no indication that
anyone had departed), and Peter even points out the Beloved Disciple
standing behind him and asks about his fate (21:20)  -- why would anyone
claim this to be a "private" discussion and thereby attempt to insert a
wedge of difficulty beyond the problems which already exist in the
resurrection parallels?

==============================================================
Maurice A. Robinson, Ph. D.
Professor of Greek and New Testament
Southeastern Baptist Theological Seminary
Wake Forest, North Carolina, USA

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Subject: Papias, Q and Synoptic-L? (was Re: tc-list Mark 16:9-20)
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On 24 Oct 98 at 15:18, Nichael Lynn Cramer wrote:

> As many have pointed out, this is way off the track of TC, but...

This is just a suggestion, but perhaps the time has come to move the non-TC 
elements in this discussion over to Synoptic-L where it would more obviously be 
at home?  For those unfamiliar with Synoptic-L, details are available on its 
web site at:

http://www.bham.ac.uk/theology/synoptic-l

Mark
-------------------------------------------
Dr Mark Goodacre    M.S.Goodacre@bham.ac.uk
  Dept of Theology, University of Birmingham

Recommended New Testament Web Resources:
  http://www.bham.ac.uk/theology/goodacre/links.htm
World Without Q:
  http://www.bham.ac.uk/theology/q
Homepage:
  http://www.bham.ac.uk/theology/goodacre

From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Mon Oct 26 09:09:47 1998
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Can I mention a PhD thesis on Mk 16:9-20 that is perhaps the 
most thorough relavtively recent study attempting to answer for its 
origin & it relevance in early copies of Mark:
Paul Mirecki, "Mark 16:9-20:  Composition, Tradition, and 
Redaction" (ThD Harvard Univ., 1986).
Larry Hurtado

L. W. Hurtado
University of Edinburgh,
New College
Mound Place 
Edinburgh, Scotland EH1 2LX
Phone: 0131-650-8920
Fax: 0131-650-6579
E-mail:  L.Hurtado@ed.ac.uk

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On Mon, 26 Oct 1998 14:09:31 +000 "Professor L.W. Hurtado"
<hurtadol@div.ed.ac.uk> writes:

>Can I mention a PhD thesis on Mk 16:9-20 that is perhaps the 
>most thorough relavtively recent study attempting to answer for its 
>origin & it relevance in early copies of Mark: 
>Paul Mirecki, "Mark 16:9-20:  Composition, Tradition, and 
>Redaction" (ThD Harvard Univ., 1986).

Could you provide us a summary of conclusions, Larry?

I would add a Ph.D. thesis by Stephen L. Cox, "A History and Critique of
Scholarship Concerning the Markan Endings" (PhD Southern Baptist
Theological Seminary, 1991, external reader Metzger).  Cox concluded that
Mark originally ended at 16:8, despite my best efforts to persuade him
differently :-).   

==============================================
Maurice A. Robinson
Professor of NT and Greek
Southeastern Baptist Theological Seminary
Wake Forest, North Carolina

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> On Mon, 26 Oct 1998 14:09:31 +000 "Professor L.W. Hurtado"
> <hurtadol@div.ed.ac.uk> writes:
> 
> >Can I mention a PhD thesis on Mk 16:9-20 that is perhaps the 
> >most thorough relavtively recent study attempting to answer for its 
> >origin & it relevance in early copies of Mark: 
> >Paul Mirecki, "Mark 16:9-20:  Composition, Tradition, and 
> >Redaction" (ThD Harvard Univ., 1986).
In reply Maurice Robinson asks: 
> Could you provide us a summary of conclusions, Larry?
It's been a number of years since I read Mirecki's dissertation, and 
I don't own a copy to refresh my memory.  But in general he argues 
that the 16:9-20 is a very old ending (though likely not original), 
with ample connections to ideas, needs, concerns circulating in 
the very early church.  That is, he offers a view for *why* (not 
merely now) this "long ending" may have been felt needed & 
serviceable to early Christians.
Mirecki draws upon his dissertation in his essay "The Authentic 
Saying in Mark 16:16:  Formal and Redactional Features," in _The 
Future of Early Christianity:  Essays in Honor of Helmut Koester_, 
ed. B. A. Pearson (Fortress, 1991).
Larry Hurtado

L. W. Hurtado
University of Edinburgh,
New College
Mound Place 
Edinburgh, Scotland EH1 2LX
Phone: 0131-650-8920
Fax: 0131-650-6579
E-mail:  L.Hurtado@ed.ac.uk

From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Wed Oct 28 13:54:40 1998
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>Date: Tue, 27 Oct 1998 19:17:05 -0500 (EST)
From: Bruce Terry <rbterry@ovc.edu>
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Subject: tc-list Mark 16:9-20 Style
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On Oct. 23, 1998, William L. Petersen wrote: 

>(C) Vincent Taylor remarks on the non-Marcan style of the long ending--a
>point which I find very convincing.  Taylor:  (p. 610):  "The vocabulary
>and style of this section show clearly that it was not written by Mark,
>but is based on a knowledge of traditions found in Lk and Jn."  He then
>proceeds to list a whole catalogue of non-Marcan features (vocabulary,
>grammar, etc., etc.).  (Taylor also provides an excellent summary of the
>Patristic [non-]evidence for the long ending...)

May I suggest that the case for non-Marcan style has been overstated.
Since discourse is my interest, I have done some study in this area and a
prelimary write-up is available for inspection at:

ftp://bible.acu.edu/greek/papers/markend_style.txt

In my studies I have have found that most of the stylistic features of the
ending which are non-Marcan do in fact occur in Mark.  I note especially
that the case for non-Marcan vocabulary is overstated (no baseline study
was done to determine how many new words to expect).  There are 13 words
used once in the long ending which occur nowhere else in Mark; however, if
one looks at short sections 2-5 verses in length (of which the long ending
contains four) in the last 5 chapters of Mark, the ratio of words used
only once to verses is 1.1, meaning that in 12 verses one would expect 13
new words to be used once which have not been used elsewhere.  This is
exactly what is found in the long ending.  The "high" number of vocabulary
words not found elsewhere in Mark are an argument _for_ Marcan authorship,
not an argument against.  It is easy to read a passage and make up
stylistic rules for ancient authors.  It is much more time consuming to do
the spade work to find out what their styles (or rather their range of
styles) actually were.

More details on this can be found in the posting to B-Greek in the summer
of 1996 when we discussed this previously on that forum.

For those curious about the above essay, I append a summary below:

--Bruce

**************************************************************************
Bruce Terry                                  Prof. of Bible and Humanities
Ohio Valley College                          phone: 304/485-7384 ext. 153
4501 College Parkway                         fax:   304/485-3106
Parkersburg, WV 26101                        e-mail: rbterry@ovc.edu
**************************************************************************

	          		 A SUMMARY OF
		      THE STYLE OF THE LONG ENDING OF MARK

     Textual critics usually object to Mark's authorship of these verses on
the basis of supposed differences of style between them and the rest of the
Gospel of Mark.  However, an in depth study of the stylistic features in
question reveals that almost all of them can be found elsewhere in Mark.  For
convenience of discussion, these features may be categorized under four
headings: juncture, vocabulary, phraseology, and miscellaneous.

Objections Based on Juncture

Five objections have been raised concerning the juncture of verses 8 and 9:
1) the subject of verse 8 is the women, whereas Jesus is the presumed subject
   of verse 9;
2) the other women of verses 1-8 are forgotten in verses 9-20;
     Mark 2:13; 6:45; 7:31; 8:1; and 14:3 all meet the following conditions:
     a) the verse begins a new section;
     b) Jesus is the presumed subject (referred to only as "he");
     c) the previous verse does not refer to Jesus;
     d) the previous verse has a subject other than Jesus; and
     e) the subject of the previous verse is not mentioned in the new section.
3) in verse 9 Mary Magdalene is identified even though she has been mentioned
   only a few lines before;
     flashbacks that give additional information are also found in Mark 3:16,
     17; 6:16; and 7:26.
4) while the use of anastas de ("Now rising") and the position of proton
   ("first") are appropriate at  the beginning  of a comprehensive narrative,
   they are ill-suited in a continuation of verses 1-8; and
     verse 9 is the start of a new section on resurrection appearances.
5) the use of the conjunction gar ("for") at the end of verse 8 is very abrupt.
     short clauses of three words (Mark 1:16; 11:18) and four words (Mark 1:38;
     3:21; 5:42; 9:49; 14:70; 15:14; 16:4) that contain gar are found in Mark.

Objections Based on Vocabulary

Three  objections are raised on the grounds of vocabulary:
1) sixteen words used in this section are not used elsewhere in the Gospel of
   Mark;
     a) eight of these sixteen do have their word root used elsewhere in Mark;
     b) three of these sixteen words are found only in the post-resurrection
	accounts in the story of Jesus' life; and
     c) other twelve verse sections in Mark match or exceed this:
        1) the first 12 verses of chapter 1 contain 16 words used only 
           once in Mark
        2) the first 12 verses of chapter 14 contain 20 such words
        3) the 12 verses of Mark 15:40-16:4, contain 20 to 22 such words,
           depending on textual variants that are not used elsewhere in
           Mark.
     d) thirteen of these words are used only once in Mark.
        1) in the 661 undisputed verses in Mark, there are 555 words used
           only once.
        2) for chapters, the ratio of words used only once to verses varies
           between .37 in chapter 3 and 1.15 in chapter 15 with 1.08 for 
           the long ending of Mark; chapter 7, 13, and 15 exceed this.
        3) for short (2-5 verse) sections (like the four in the long ending
           of Mark), the ratio of words used only once to verses varies 
           between .00 and 2.4 with an average for chapters 12-16 of 1.1; 
           this means twelve verses of short sections in the latter part of 
           Mark should contain thirteen words used only once, which is 
           exactly what the long ending of Mark contains. 
2) three of these words are used more than once in this section; 
     a) there are 77 such words within 12 verse spans in Mark.
     b) the long ending of Mark has a unique-words-used-more-than-once to 
        verse ratio of .25
     c) for chapters, this ratio varies between 0 to .25 (chapter 2 has 7 
        such words in 28 verses)
     d) for sections, this ratio varies from 0 to 1 (Mark 2:18-22)
     e) Mark 2:18-22 contains 5 words used 3 to 6 times only in this 
        section in Mark plus 7 words used only once in Mark!
     f) other examples include:
        1) sporos ("seed," Mark 4:26, 27),
        2) sunthlibo ("throng, press," Mark 5:24, 31),
        3) telones ("tax-collector, publican," Mark 8:9, 20), and
        4) huperetes ("servant, officer, guard, attendant," Mark 14:54, 65).
3) this section does not contain some of Mark's favorite words: eutheos or
   euthus (both  meaning "immediately") and palin ("again").
     a) the last fifty-three verses do not contain them; and
     b) of the 650 sets of twelve consecutive verses in Mark, not considering
	the last twelve verses, 229 sets (35%+) do not contain euthus, eutheos,
	or palin;
     c) nine words that are used more often in the rest of Mark than in the
	other gospels are also found in the last twelve verses.


Objections Based on Phraseology

Three objections are raised on the grounds of phraseology:
1) eight phrases used in this section are not used elsewhere in Mark;
     in the twelve verses of Mark 15:42-16:6 there are nine phrases used which
     are not found elsewhere in Mark.
2) similar but different phrases (prote sabbatou "first of the week" and mia
   ton sabbaton ("one of the week") are used elsewhere in Mark; and
     a) in Mark 2:23, 24 the sabbath is referred to in the plural form in
	Greek (ta sabbata) while three verses later in verses 27-28 Mark
	switches to the singular form (to sabbaton), both with a singular
	meaning;
     b) in Mark 5:2 the word that Mark uses for "tomb" is mnemeion while
	in verses 3 and 5 he switches to the similar word mnema; and
     c) the same variation is found in Mark 15:56-16:8.
3) the phrase oi met' autou genomenoi ("those having been with him") is used
   to designate the disciples only here.
     a) the past flavor given to the phrase by the use of the aorist
	participle genomenoi ("having been") would hardly have been appropriate
	previous to the crucifixion; and
     b) the shorter expression oi met' autou ("those with him") is found three
	times elsewhere in Mark (1:36; 2:25; and 5:40).


Miscellaneous Objections

Five miscellaneous objections have also been raised to Mark's authorship:
1) It is claimed that Mark's usual style is to expand the accounts of incidents
   in Christ's life as compared with the other Gospels while this section
   condenses the accounts;
     a) Mark gives only seven verses to John the Baptist's preaching,
     b) Mark gives only three verses to Jesus' baptism, and
     c) Mark gives only two verses to His temptation
2) It is noted that Mark has a fondness for the word kai ("and") which is
   lacking in this section;
     a) the scant usage of kai in this section is paralleled in the twelve
	verse sections of Mark 7:15-26 (only eight uses of kai, six joining
	clauses) and 13:26-37 (only nine uses of kai, four joining clauses);
     b) the first four verses of the Gospel do not contain a single coordinating
	conjunction.
3) It is claimed that ekeinos ("that one") and the contraction kakeinos ("and
   that one") are used in a weakened sense of simply "he," "she," or "they" in
   this section as opposed to the rest of the Gospel;
     a) the contracted form kakeinos is used absolutely in Mark 12:4, 5
4) It is noted that Jesus is referred to as "the Lord" or "the Lord Jesus" only
   in this section of Mark;
     a) term "Lord" is also used in reference to Christ in Mark 1:3; 2:28; 7:28;
	11:3; and 12:36-37; and
     b) Luke also uses the heightened term "the Lord Jesus" only in Luke 24:3,
	after His resurrection.
5) And it is noted that the only appearances recorded in this ending of Mark
   are also recorded in the other Gospels, implying that the writer relied on
   the other Gospels for his information.
     this section contains new information about the appearances not revealed
     elsewhere.  For example, this section alone tells us
     a) that the disciples were "mourning and weeping" (v. 10),
     b) that Christ appeared to the two on the road in a "different form"
	(v. 12),
     c) and that one of the signs to follow the disciples would be the drinking
	of deadly things without harmful results (v.18).

Cumulative Style and Peak

     In conclusion, we see that all the objections to Mark's authorship of this
section based on style fall into one of two classes: (1) either the stylistic
feature in question is found elsewhere in Mark, or (2) there is a reasonable
explanation for its presence.  By far the largest number of objections fall in
the first category.  This indicates that it is not correct to state that this
long ending is not in Mark's style.
     It is possible that someone might object that it is not that these
stylistic features are not found elsewhere in Mark, but that they are rare in
Mark, being used infrequently by him.  Thus it is the cumulative factor of
using so many rare stylistic features in one place that makes this section
non-Marcan.  This objection is well-taken and must be given consideration.
     With the recent discovery of the concept of peak, however, this frequent
use of rare features in an important part of the story is exactly what should
be expected.  Peak is a area of grammatical turbulence.  Little used features
become prominent in peak sections and often used features are abandoned.
Background devices become foregrounded and vice versa.  In languages around
the world, peak has been shown to occur in sections of climax and denouement,
and sometimes inciting incident, in narratives told by good storytellers.  If
the crucifixion is the climax, the resurrection is the denouement.  One would
expect this to be a peak area in which the use of expected stylistic features
is abandoned in favor of less frequently used ones.  Rather than revealing that
Mark is not the author of these last twelve verses, this different cumulative
style may show that he was a good storyteller.









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I have received a request that I cannot answer, but some of you 
probably can
"I am interested to find an URL (Internet link) for the tele chargement 
of the NT text in Greek, with diacritics, spirits etc. (either 4USB, 
either NT27"
     The writer is Gabriel Golea, a NT PhD student in the Faculte de 
Theologie Protestante, University of Strasbourg, whose home address is 
4, rue Schumann, 67000 - Strasbourg, tel. 03.88.61.95.64.
     His e-mail address is golea@ushs2.u-strasbg.fr
Vinton A. Dearing

From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Thu Oct 29 00:01:30 1998
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        ane@asmar.uchicago.edu, hebraisticum@goofy.zdv.Uni-Mainz.de
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FYI - hope the duplication is not overwhelming - forwarded message with 
agreement of sender:
------
From: Sidnie White Crawford <scrawfor@unlinfo.unl.edu>

May I invite all who are interested in comparing the merits of the
Hebrew University Bible Project and the Biblia Hebraica Quinta to attend
the two sessions of the Textual Criticism of the Hebrew Bible section at
the Annual Meeting of the Society of Biblical Literature in Orlando this
November.  At one session there will be a panel critiquing the first
fascicle of BHQ, with two of the editors responding.  At the second
session Professors Shemaryahu Talmon, Emanuel Tov, and Galen Marquis
will present the latest fasciscle of the HUBP.

Sincerely,
Sidnie White Crawford
Co-Chair, Textual Criticism of the Hebrew Bible

------
Peter Burton


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Subject: Re: tc-list Mark 16:9-20 Style
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Bruce,

I don't have time to respond to every single item you compiled to argue
for the Markan style of 16:9-20. The immediate weaknesses of a few of
them leaped off the screen:

>4) It is noted that Jesus is referred to as "the Lord" or "the Lord 
>Jesus" only in this section of Mark;
>     a) term "Lord" is also used in reference to Christ in Mark 1:3; 
>2:28; 7:28; 11:3; and 12:36-37; and

Your collection of the references to Jesus as KURIOS in Mark is
misleading. Independently, Mark does *not* use KURIOS in a Christological
or messianic fashion in 1:1-16:8.

In Mk 1:3, KURIOS is not Mark's personal choice of words, instead; KURIOS
is nested in a scriptural quotation.

In Mk 2:28, KURIOS is used in a description of Jesus' authority over the
Sabbath.

In Mk 7:28, the *vocative* KURIOS is used by the Syrophenecian woman and
should best be translated "sir" (as in the NRSV), unless you think the
householder in Mt 13:27, the father in Mt 21:30, the bridegroom in Mt
25:11, the "master of the slaves" in Mt 25:20, 22, 24, Pilate in Mt 27:63
(among others) should be translated "Lord" and be considered equal in
status to Jesus as KURIOS in Mk 7:28.

In Mark 11:3 KURIOS is found in a quotation that Jesus wants the two
disciples to make if they are questioned about "borrowing" the donkey.
KURIOS is not a Christological or messianic title in 11:3 as in 16:19-20.
Instead, based on Jesus' quotation, the two disciples would end up
looking like servants sent out on business for their earthly master. 

In Mk 12:36-37, Jesus is discussing the use of KURIOS in Psalm 110.
Again, the use of KURIOS is not Mark's personal choice of words, but is
based on scriptural citation and related discussion.

>     b) Luke also uses the heightened term "the Lord Jesus" only in 
>Luke 24:3, after His resurrection.

You didn't mention that Luke uses the phrase "Lord Jesus" not just in Lk
24:3, but in Acts 1:21; 4:33; 7:59; 8:16; 11:20; 15:11; 16:31; 19:5, 13,
17; 20:24, 35; 21:13. This does not even include the references to the
"Lord Jesus Christ" in Acts 11:17; 28:31. BTW, the phrase (whether
including "Christ" or not) is found *nowhere* else in any of the
canonical Gospels. This points to the *Lucan* nature of the phrase, not
the Markan nature of the phrase.

Oh, BTW, you still didn't address my previous post. If Mk 16:9-20 is
original to Mark, why no mention of Galilee in Mk 16:9-20 when it's
emphasized in 14:28 and 16:7. This is especially intriguing since 16:7 is
a mere two verses away from the supposedly original longer ending? Did
Mark forget two verses later to mention it? Matthew solved the problem by
mentioning an appearance in Galilee (Mt 28:16). Luke solved the problem
by not mentioning that Jesus would be seen in Galilee (i.e., there are no
parallels to Mk 14:28; 16:7 in Luke) -- of course, Luke needs to keep the
disciples and the appearances in the Jerusalem vicinity for the beginning
of the sequel (Acts). Why no Galilee in Mk 16:9-20?

Jeff Cate, Ph.D.
Associate Professor of Christian Studies
California Baptist University
Riverside, California 92508

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From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Thu Oct 29 01:37:56 1998
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Style, I think, is nearly useless as a criteria for TC decisions. 
The reasons is that evidence can be used to prove just about anyting. 
Dawsey has made a case that based on style, Luke and Acts have different
authors.  If that can be deonstrated for Acts, there's no telling what
you could demonstrate with a mere 10 verses of Mark.  IMHO, you would
need an enormous sample size to even begin to show what someone's style
cuold be because style differs based on genre.  So you need lots of
genres, ots of material and eventhen, no firm decisins can be made.  As
noted by Maurice, someone showed that the beginning of mark was unMarkan
as much as theend.  That just goes to prove how useless an analysis of
"style" can be.  Style should not be used as a criterion for texual
decisions because our decisions about style refelct ONLY what we think
an author would or could have done and say nothing about the actual
possiblities.  If you think that Luke and Acts have the same author,
then you shouldn't be using style to ague about the enidngof Mark,
because there is clear stylistic evidence that Luke and Acts had
different authors -- if you accept that kind of data as valid.  

Ken Litwak

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From: "E. Bruce Brooks" <brooks@asianlan.umass.edu>
Subject: tc-list Mark 16:9-20 Style
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Topic: Mk 16:9-20 Style
From: Bruce
In Response To: Ken Litwak (29 Oct 98)

KEN: . . . The reason is that evidence can be used to prove just about
anything. 
Dawsey has made a case that based on style, Luke and Acts have different
authors.

BRUCE: Could I have a more exact reference on this, please?

E Bruce Brooks
University of Massachusetts


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On Wed, 28 Oct 1998 22:38:05 -0800 Ken Litwak <kdlitwak@concentric.net>
writes:

>Style, I think, is nearly useless as a criteria for TC decisions. 

I would be cautious here, because (taken strictly) this could imply that
internal evidence itself is not useful or valuable for determining the
text, whether under rigorous eclecticism (e.g. Elliott) or reasoned
eclecticism, or even within what is erroneously thought to be a primarily
external-based Byzantine-priority hypothesis. I for one am not ready to
throw out the baby with the bathwater....

>IMHO, you would need an enormous sample size to even begin to show what
>someone's style could be because style differs based on genre.  So you
need lots >of genres, lots of material and even then, no firm decisions
can be made.  

I don't know about that; maybe I'm more skeptical about sweeping
assertions....But I do think Nigel Turner seemed to do fairly well in
describing "style" in his section of Moulton's grammar, and this without
a massive sample size.

>As noted by Maurice, someone showed that the beginning of mark was 
>unMarkan as much as the end.  That just goes to prove how useless an
analysis of
>"style" can be.  

Burgon. But on the contrary, Burgon was not trying to demolish the
argument from style, but only to show that the extreme claims made
against Markan style in the last 12 verses could be shown to apply within
the first 12 verses, which latter in theory no one should consider
inauthentic (but see R. Way-Rider, "The Lost Beginning [sic!] of St.
Mark's Gospel, _Studia Evangelica_ VII: 553-556). 

Burgon further went on to note, however, not only evidences of Markan
style in both the first 12 and last 12 verses, but also syntactical and
structural parallels in a chiastic manner which link the opening and
closing of the gospel thematically. So neither I nor Burgon are rejecting
the style criteria or arguing that it is wholly subjective and useless.

==============================================
Maurice A. Robinson
Professor of NT and Greek
Southeastern Baptist Theological Seminary
Wake Forest, North Carolina

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On Wed, 28 Oct 1998 21:47:34 -0800 jeffcate@juno.com (Jeff Cate) writes:

>>b) Luke also uses the heightened term "the Lord Jesus" only in 
>>Luke 24:3, after His resurrection.
>
>You didn't mention that Luke uses the phrase "Lord Jesus" not just in 
>Lk 24:3, but in Acts 1:21; 4:33; 7:59; 8:16; 11:20; 15:11; 16:31; 
>19:5, 13, 17; 20:24, 35; 21:13. 

I fail to see how Lukan use of this phrase *beyond* his gospel
establishes anything in regard to the gospels themselves, particularly
when (as pointed out) Luke himself refrains from using the term until a
post-resurrection context exists. 

>BTW, the 
>phrase (whether including "Christ" or not) is found *nowhere* else in 
>any of the canonical Gospels. This points to the *Lucan* nature of the 
>phrase, not the Markan nature of the phrase.

Seems that this assumes the point to be proven, making the Markan long
ending _a priori_ inauthentic when in fact the existence of the phrase
within that long ending is being adduced as one evidence of authenticity.
Markan borrowing ("cribbing") from Luke of course cannot be ruled out as
a hypothesis, but one similarly should not say the phrase occurs "nowhere
else" when in the present context it indeed is there.  By the same
analogy, the *shorter* ending of Mark must be the product of Mark himself
since it uses "Jesus" alone to describe the risen Lord, with none of the
"Lukan" trappings.

>Oh, BTW, you still didn't address my previous post. If Mk 16:9-20 is 
>original to Mark, why no mention of Galilee in Mk 16:9-20 when it's 
>emphasized in 14:28 and 16:7. 

Bruce may not have addressed that point, but I certainly dealt with it in
what should be considered an adequate and sufficient manner (not repeated
here). Why belabor this point as if it had never been answered?

>Why no Galilee in Mk 16:9-20?

As I asked previously, why no place names whatsoever in Mk 16:9-20, even
though various changes of venue obviously occur? Answer: because the
author of that section did not choose to mention any place names. Little
more can be determined beyond that.

==============================================
Maurice A. Robinson
Professor of NT and Greek
Southeastern Baptist Theological Seminary
Wake Forest, North Carolina

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From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Fri Oct 30 02:09:42 1998
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Assuming style shows that Luke and Acts are by different authors,
leading to the conclusion that matters of style cannot tell if two works
are by different authors, should we take seriously the claim that the
'Western' version of Acts is a revision by Luke himself?


From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Fri Oct 30 02:11:44 1998
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James M. Dawsey, "The Literary Unity of Luke-Acts:  Questions of Style. 
A Task for Literary Critics," NTS (1989) 35:48-66.  
Parsosn and Pervo, Rethinking the Unity of Luke and Acts work from
Dawsey and go further.  So if style can be easily identified, and
stylistic criteria can be used to show that Luke and Acts have different
authors, in spie of the fact that most scholars think they have the same
author, what is to be made of arguments from style?  

  At least may I ask for some methodological rigor?  Define exactly what
constitutes style, what are acceptable exceptions to it by an authorand
how one may expectit to regularly be played out in various situations. 
SInce we lack so much material, I think it's hard to come up with
conclusions in this regard.  How can I validlly say what Mark or LUke or
Paul _could_ have written?  Indeed, in my early forties these days, I
find myself writing words that I have never written before, even though
Ihave known them for years and addressing issues I've never addressed
(it was hard to talk about Java programming three years ago).  I'm
writing stuff in my dissertation on LUke-Acts in a manner I've never
written anything and discussing topics I've never discussed.  It should
be easy to say, based on "style" and vocabulary, that I couldn't
possibly be the author of my dissertation.  So if we want to use style
as a basis, what exactly does that mean?  


Ken Litwak
Trinity College/Univiersity of Bristol
Bristol,England
(and Java instructor in California)


E. Bruce Brooks wrote:
> 
> Topic: Mk 16:9-20 Style
> From: Bruce
> In Response To: Ken Litwak (29 Oct 98)
> 
> KEN: . . . The reason is that evidence can be used to prove just about
> anything.
> Dawsey has made a case that based on style, Luke and Acts have different
> authors.
> 
> BRUCE: Could I have a more exact reference on this, please?
> 
> E Bruce Brooks
> University of Massachusetts

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>>>b) Luke also uses the heightened term "the Lord Jesus" only in 
>>>Luke 24:3, after His resurrection.
>>
>>You didn't mention that Luke uses the phrase "Lord Jesus" not just in 
>
>>Lk 24:3, but in Acts 1:21; 4:33; 7:59; 8:16; 11:20; 15:11; 16:31; 
>>19:5, 13, 17; 20:24, 35; 21:13. 
>
>I fail to see how Lukan use of this phrase *beyond* his gospel 
>establishes anything in regard to the gospels themselves, particularly 
>when (as pointed out) Luke himself refrains from using the term until 
>a post-resurrection context exists. 

Assuming a two-source hypothesis, it would be odd to find Luke using
"Lord Jesus" within his Gospel since the phrase is used by neither Mark
nor Q, unless some pecular Lukan source had used it. The use of "Lord
Jesus" in 16:19-20 is similar to the repeated use of "Lord Jesus" in
Acts. On a previous post, I already argued for Mk 16:17-20 as being a
pastiche based on *Acts*. "Lord Jesus" in 16:19-20 is further evidence
for 16:17-20 being dependent not just on episodes, but even on phrasing,
from Acts.

>>BTW, the phrase (whether including "Christ" or not) is found *nowhere*
else in 
>>any of the canonical Gospels. This points to the *Lucan* nature of the 
>>phrase, not the Markan nature of the phrase.

>Seems that this assumes the point to be proven, making the Markan long 
>ending _a priori_ inauthentic when in fact the existence of the phrase 
>within that long ending is being adduced as one evidence of 
>authenticity.

You are arguing my point precisely. The use of "Lord Jesus" is out of
character for Mark 1:1-16:8.

>Markan borrowing ("cribbing") from Luke of course cannot 
>be ruled out as a hypothesis, 

Mark as in the entire Gospel or Mark as in 16:9-20? If the latter, that
is precisely my point. Mk 16:9-20 is dependent upon Luke and Acts.

>but one similarly should not say the phrase occurs
>"nowhere else" when in the present context it indeed is there.

I don't follow your logic here. It is nowhere *else.* How do you define
"nowhere else"? I define that to be found in no place other than the
designated location. "Lord Jesus" is only found in Mk 16:19-20,
irregardless of whether you think Mk 16:9-20 was original or not. It is
found *nowhere else* in Mark.

>By the same analogy, the *shorter* ending of Mark must be the 
>product of Mark himself since it uses "Jesus" alone to describe the 
>risen Lord, with none of the "Lukan" trappings.

No, you've jumped ahead to conclusions. The shorter ending's use of
"Jesus" instead of "Lord" or "Lord Jesus" does not necessitate that it be
the product of Mark himself. It doesn't rule out the possibility, but it
does not mean the shorter came from Mark. There are plenty of other
reasons to rule out Markan authorship of the shorter ending.

>>Why no Galilee in Mk 16:9-20?
>
>As I asked previously, why no place names whatsoever in Mk 16:9-20, 
>even though various changes of venue obviously occur? Answer: because 
>the author of that section did not choose to mention any place names. 
>Little more can be determined beyond that.

Sorry that I missed your previous explanation. You've made my point
exactly. Why the lack of geographical designations if Mk 16:9-20 came
from the same author as Mk 1:1-16:8? Based on Occam's razor, isn't it
just more plausible that Mk 16:9-20 is from a different author at a later
time that didn't pick up on the need to mention Galilee? 

I'm not arrogant enough to think that my responses are the final word to
this matter, but I'm going to sign off on this one for another day
because I don't want to weary the good people on this list. My apologies
for too many posts on a stylistic issue of TC. Maurice, I welcome your
responses to my personal e-mail address.

Jeff Cate, Ph.D.
Associate Professor of Christian Studies
California Baptist University
Riverside, California 92508

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From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Fri Oct 30 10:03:31 1998
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Well for Mark it seems that stylistic matters are confined to the singular
"Markan" text though this certainly does not simplify the issue. What you
describe below is more of an issue for multiple texts written by one author
and is somewhat reductionistic. Since this discussion arose in relation to
Mark, your arguments against style as an issue for making decisions about
the ending of Mark seem to dissipate. What I would like to see is your own
methodological rigor? How or on what basis will you make a textual
decision? Ever by Internal issues? What does legitimately consitute an
internal issue? I must assume that textual decision, for you, will always
have to be the oldest reading available in all cases? Otherwise I cannot
see how you would decide between a newer reading over and older reading
except for some type of internal evidence, whatever that may be for you,
which is essentially a matter of style--especially in the case of Mark.

>  At least may I ask for some methodological rigor?  Define exactly what
>constitutes style, what are acceptable exceptions to it by an authorand
>how one may expectit to regularly be played out in various situations. 
>SInce we lack so much material, I think it's hard to come up with
>conclusions in this regard.  How can I validlly say what Mark or LUke or
>Paul _could_ have written?  Indeed, in my early forties these days, I
>find myself writing words that I have never written before, even though
>Ihave known them for years and addressing issues I've never addressed
>(it was hard to talk about Java programming three years ago).  I'm
>writing stuff in my dissertation on LUke-Acts in a manner I've never
>written anything and discussing topics I've never discussed.  It should
>be easy to say, based on "style" and vocabulary, that I couldn't
>possibly be the author of my dissertation.  So if we want to use style
>as a basis, what exactly does that mean?  
>
>
>Ken Litwak
>Trinity College/Univiersity of Bristol
>Bristol,England
>(and Java instructor in California)
>
>
>E. Bruce Brooks wrote:
>> 
>> Topic: Mk 16:9-20 Style
>> From: Bruce
>> In Response To: Ken Litwak (29 Oct 98)
>> 
>> KEN: . . . The reason is that evidence can be used to prove just about
>> anything.
>> Dawsey has made a case that based on style, Luke and Acts have different
>> authors.
>> 
>> BRUCE: Could I have a more exact reference on this, please?
>> 
>> E Bruce Brooks
>> University of Massachusetts
>
>


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>From jeffcate@juno.com (Jeff Cate):

>>>BTW, the phrase (whether including "Christ" or not) is found
>>>*nowhere* else in any of the canonical Gospels. This points to the
>>>*Lucan* nature of the phrase, not the Markan nature of the phrase.

>>Seems that this assumes the point to be proven, making the Markan long
>>ending _a priori_ inauthentic when in fact the existence of the phrase
>>within that long ending is being adduced as one evidence of
>>authenticity.

>You are arguing my point precisely. The use of "Lord Jesus" is out of
>character for Mark 1:1-16:8.

Then somewhere we are talking past each other. I was NOT at that point
arguing that "Lord Jesus" was "out of character" for Mk.1:1-16:8; only
that (as Lk 24:3 demonstrates) such a phrase is not "_in_ character"
for ANY gospel _before_ the point of the resurrection, so it cannot be
used as a stylistic criterion against Mk. 1:1-16:8 any more than it can
be considered as evidence that Lk 1:1-24:2 is "non-Lukan" merely
because that portion of text similarly does not contain the phrase. But 
in fact someone else _did_ point out that phrase in the long ending as 
evidence for authenticity and not inauthenticity, and that alone is what
I 
was picking up on.

>>Markan borrowing ("cribbing") from Luke of course cannot
>>be ruled out as a hypothesis,

>Mark as in the entire Gospel or Mark as in 16:9-20? If the latter,
>that is precisely my point. Mk 16:9-20 is dependent upon Luke and
>Acts.

Take your choice...(a) If one accepts Lindsay's theory of Lukan 
priority, then the whole gospel of Mark could be subject to the charge 
of borrowing from Luke and probably could find support in a number of 
instances.  (b) If the hypothesis were that the long ending was _not_ 
original and reflected a summary taken from the other three gospels and 
Acts, then that theory _is_ supported by the presence of the phrase.  
But I hold to neither: my contention rather is merely that (c) the 
presence of the phrase "Lord Jesus" in itself does _not_ argue for
_either_ Markan inauthenticity of the long ending nor a dependence upon
either Lk or Acts.

>>but one similarly should not say the phrase occurs
>>"nowhere else" when in the present context it indeed is there.

>I don't follow your logic here. It is nowhere *else.* How do you
>define "nowhere else"? I define that to be found in no place other
>than the designated location. "Lord Jesus" is only found in Mk
>16:19-20, irregardless of whether you think Mk 16:9-20 was original or
>not. It is found *nowhere else* in Mark.

The latter qualification is granted; it also is found "nowhere else"
in Luke's gospel besides 24:3. So what is thereby established? 
That Lk 24:3 is not Lukan?

The point in context (as I read it) was that it was found "nowhere
else" _except_ in Lk/Acts, and thus there was _no_ possibility that
such could have occurred _independently_ in Mark, whether 1:1-16:8 or
within whatever its original ending may have been. It was on this basis
that the phrase was being used to demonstrate the inauthenticity of Mk
16:9-20, which was already assumed to be non-authentic etc. -- which
is precisely what I suggested as a  non-sequitur and assuming the
point to be proven.

>>By the same analogy, the *shorter* ending of Mark must be the
>>product of Mark himself since it uses "Jesus" alone to describe the
>>risen Lord, with none of the "Lukan" trappings.

>No, you've jumped ahead to conclusions. The shorter ending's use of
>"Jesus" instead of "Lord" or "Lord Jesus" does not necessitate that it
>be the product of Mark himself. It doesn't rule out the possibility,
>but it does not mean the shorter came from Mark. There are plenty of
>other reasons to rule out Markan authorship of the shorter ending.

Actually, I was being facetious, and attempting a reductio ad
absurdum. Should have put the smiley in....  :-)

>>>Why no Galilee in Mk 16:9-20?

>>As I asked previously, why no place names whatsoever in Mk 16:9-20,
>>even though various changes of venue obviously occur? Answer: because
>>the author of that section did not choose to mention any place names.
>>Little more can be determined beyond that.

>Sorry that I missed your previous explanation. You've made my point
>exactly. Why the lack of geographical designations if Mk 16:9-20 came
>from the same author as Mk 1:1-16:8? Based on Occam's razor, isn't it
>just more plausible that Mk 16:9-20 is from a different author at a
>later time that didn't pick up on the need to mention Galilee?

Why? This again assumes that Mark at every juncture _has_ to provide 
geographical indicators. Even if he did so for 1:1-16:8 at every 
possible opportunity, it still does not force him to do so in the 
remainder. But in fact the writer did not identify geographical 
location at every opportunity: a very cursory examination brings forth 
at least the following changes of venue which have no location named: 
2:23; 3:1, 13, 19b; 4;1, 5:21; 6:1, 6, 32; 8:1; 9:2; 10:17. I simply
remain 
loath to tell Mark exactly how he would have had to have written in order
to 
convince later readers of his authorship.

>I'm going to sign off on this one for another day
>because I don't want to weary the good people on this list.

Probably everyone is wearied, and I hope to sign off on this angle of
discussion also. See my next post which brings things back to TC and
probably negates the whole line of discussion anyway....

==============================================================
Maurice A. Robinson, Ph. D.
Professor of Greek and New Testament
Southeastern Baptist Theological Seminary
Wake Forest, North Carolina, USA

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>From jeffcate@juno.com (Jeff Cate):

Repeating portions from the previous thread which were not addressed in
my previous post, solely to provide context:

>>>>b) Luke also uses the heightened term "the Lord Jesus" only in
>>>>Luke 24:3, after His resurrection.

>>>You didn't mention that Luke uses the phrase "Lord Jesus" not just in
>>>Lk 24:3, but in Acts 1:21; 4:33; 7:59; 8:16; 11:20; 15:11; 16:31;
>>>19:5, 13, 17; 20:24, 35; 21:13.

I wrote:

>>I fail to see how Lukan use of this phrase *beyond* his gospel
>>establishes anything in regard to the gospels themselves,
>>particularly when (as pointed out) Luke himself refrains from using
>>the term until a post-resurrection context exists.

Jeff Cate now writes:

>Assuming a two-source hypothesis, it would be odd to find Luke using
>"Lord Jesus" within his Gospel since the phrase is used by neither
>Mark nor Q, unless some peculiar Lukan source had used it. The use of
>"Lord Jesus" in 16:19-20 is similar to the repeated use of "Lord
>Jesus" in Acts. On a previous post, I already argued for Mk 16:17-20
>as being a pastiche based on *Acts*. "Lord Jesus" in 16:19-20 is
>further evidence for 16:17-20 being dependent not just on episodes,
>but even on phrasing, from Acts.

Things now will start getting interesting, since I now return directly
to text critical aspects of this situation. I let the discussion run
its course without stating the obvious, and my one real question still
is whether anyone ever bothers to consult a textual apparatus before
drawing conclusions.

Here is the summary of the evidence, compiled from the Nestle27 
apparatus at the pertinent point:

Mk. 16:19

Nestle27 -- O MEN OUN KURIOS IHSOUS
Variant1  --  O MEN           KURIOS IHSOUS
Variant2  --  O MEN OUN KURIOS
Variant3  --  O MEN OUN KURIOS IHSOUS CRISTOS

Nestle27 is supported by K Delta f1 f13 33 565 579 892c 1241 1424
	2427 L-2211 al it vg-cl sy cop Ir-lat.

Variant1 (omitting OUN but retaining KURIOS IHSOUS) is supported by
	C* L W L-844 pc

Variant2 (omitting IHSOUS) is supported by "M" (= Byz) Dsupp Theta Psi
	it-l vg-st vg-ww

Variant3 (adding CRISTOS post IHSOUS) is supported by W it-o bo-mss

So, while everyone seemed so intent on making a case from KURIOS IHSOUS,
the Byzantine Majority reading **totally omitted** the key word IHSOUS,
and it therefore was _never_ pertinent to the discussion of
authenticity from the perspective of those who were arguing in favor of
the long ending (if anyone favoring the long ending thinks otherwise, 
let me know).

The fact that the editors of N27 chose to claim it as part of the
"original" form for the long ending does not militate against this
point, unless one first concurs with their decision on reasonable
internal grounds.  Very few who claim long-ending-authenticity would
concur with their decision; most would prefer to follow the Byzantine
majority at this point. If so, the point of the KURIOS IHSOUS reading
is moot.

Why should this be the case?  Basic principles of internal evidence. 
Had the longer term KURIOS IHSOUS been original to the long ending, it
is unlikely that _any_ scribe would have omitted it, save by accident.

Homoioteleuton _is_ possible from "KS IS" to "KS", but while scattered
MSS
might accidentally omit, the likelihood that virtually _all_ MSS would
do so and/or _never_ have the error corrected is highly unlikely.

Rather, the addition of IHSOUS in less than two dozen Greek MSS and
some versional witnesses reflecting Byzantine, Alexandrian, "Caesarean"
and Western diversity (not always in line with the text of their
respective texttypes) seems to point to relatively independent instances
of
the typical "pious expansion" so often charged against the Byzantine
majority. The addition of CRISTOS to IHSOUS in the similarly diverse
witness group W it-o bo-mss demonstrates an even more extended "pious
expansion".

If this is valid, then all the claims regarding KURIOS IHSOUS as a
"non-Markan term" which would prove inauthenticity fall by the wayside.

To requote Jeff's statement:

>On a previous post, I already argued for Mk 16:17-20
>as being a pastiche based on *Acts*. "Lord Jesus" in 16:19-20 is
>further evidence for 16:17-20 being dependent not just on episodes,
>but even on phrasing, from Acts.

If the long ending therefore _never_ originally read "Lord Jesus," then
the claimed dependency on either Luke or Acts is no longer evidenced,
and all discussion to that point is irrelevant.

The _real_ issue with which now to deal is the use of the articular
KURIOS standing alone in Mk 16:19-20 (occurring twice in two verses!) 
and whether _that_ term is "Markan" or "non-Markan." 

(For point of reference, the articular KURIOS occurs with reference to 
Jesus as Lord in Mk. 5:19; 11:3; 12:36; and [within a metaphor where 
the referent seems obvious] 13:35, so in point of fact, the use of the 
articular KURIOS _without_ addition of IHSOUS argues in _favor_ of 
and not against "Markan authenticity").

Maybe now the previous discussion can terminate, and something more
text-critical arise in its place. :-)

==============================================================
Maurice A. Robinson, Ph. D.
Professor of Greek and New Testament
Southeastern Baptist Theological Seminary
Wake Forest, North Carolina, USA

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From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Fri Oct 30 23:23:07 1998
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Mike Logsdon wrote:
> 
> Well for Mark it seems that stylistic matters are confined to the singular
> "Markan" text though this certainly does not simplify the issue. What you
> describe below is more of an issue for multiple texts written by one author
> and is somewhat reductionistic. Since this discussion arose in relation to
> Mark, your arguments against style as an issue for making decisions about
> the ending of Mark seem to dissipate. What I would like to see is your own
> methodological rigor? How or on what basis will you make a textual
> decision? Ever by Internal issues? What does legitimately consitute an
> internal issue? I must assume that textual decision, for you, will always
> have to be the oldest reading available in all cases? Otherwise I cannot
> see how you would decide between a newer reading over and older reading
> except for some type of internal evidence, whatever that may be for you,
> which is essentially a matter of style--especially in the case of Mark.
> 
  Mike, perhaps I wasn't clear.  My point is not about multiple book
authorship.  My point is that, if so many scholars think that Luke and
Acts had the same author, yet Dawsey and others can argue against common
authorship on stylistic grounds, then "style" must be so slippery a term
that it may be inherently unhelpful.  I don't have a definition of style
that would be helpful.  That's the point.  To make an argument about
style, you need to define the term precisely enough that data you offer
to make an argument should be able to persuade.  IF you don't define he
term carefully enough to account for anomalies, changes in rhetorical
strategy, one-time use of a word or phrase, etc., then I don't know what
kind of evidence you could offer for style that should be taken as able
to persuade (not persuasive but even logical to make an argument based
on it).  So that's what I'm after: a definition of style that is precise
enough that I can take data, apply it to that definition, and come up
with an answer that some text probably is or probably isn't by a given
author.  I don't' expect exactitude, since this is after all the
Humanities, and there's no way to test the validity of our results on
anything other than modern texts.  This is like offering an intertextual
analysis of of the use of the Scriptures of Israel in the NT without
ever stopping to say which of several competing, incompatible views of
intertextuality you are using.

     As for me, I don't think I rely solely upon external evidence.  For
one thing,  if I read one MS of John 17 in which Jesus prays that God
will "not keep them from the Evil one" and every other MS says that he
prayed that would would "keep them from the Evil one", then I presume
this one copyist messed up, and it's not hard in the text to see how he
or she might have put an extra negative particle in.  I can also surmise
from the content of the prayer in John 17 that such a statement would be
out of keeping with what the rest of the prayer said.  So I might well
make a judgment on a reading based on its internal consistency with what
I think the co-text says.  I tend to think, based on how I read the
argument of Romans 1-4, that Rom 5:1 should be read with the indicative
of ECW, not the subjunctive.  

  So turning aside from style as too slippery a criterion doesn't mean
that I am forced to use only external evidence.  Internal consistency,
however, is not style. Style would apply more if, say, Mark always the
Greek vocabulary that would have been found on the 1st century
equivalent of the GRE, instead of the sort of Greek vocabulary one would
have found in the equivalent of the Athens TImes (I am of course being
anachronistic but you surely get the point?).  SO if Mark ALWAYS used
very rare, pedantic vocabulary, and some disputed verse or verses used
common street vocabulary, the authenticity of those verses might be
argued against on this basis of vocabulary, BUT you would also have to
account for the source of the statement, its rhetorical context and
purpose and so forth, which could easily influence one's choice of
vocabulary.  The problem with style, for me, is to assume that it is so
easily quantifiable that apparent exceptions can be clearly identified
and that, a priori, those must be non-Markan, or non-Pauline, etc.  What
do you think?


Ken Litwak
Ph.D. student, NT
Trinity College/Univ. of Bristol
Bristol, England
(and Java instructor in California)

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I responded privately to Maurice just as I said I would regarding the
lengthy stylistic issue that we have been debating. This post I choose to
make public since it is debating a variant within 16:19.

On Fri, 30 Oct 1998 21:08:31 EST seventh.guardian@juno.com (M A Robinson)
writes:
>Jeff Cate now writes:
>
>>Assuming a two-source hypothesis, it would be odd to find Luke using
>>"Lord Jesus" within his Gospel since the phrase is used by neither
>>Mark nor Q, unless some peculiar Lukan source had used it. The use of
>>"Lord Jesus" in 16:19-20 is similar to the repeated use of "Lord
>>Jesus" in Acts. On a previous post, I already argued for Mk 16:17-20
>>as being a pastiche based on *Acts*. "Lord Jesus" in 16:19-20 is
>>further evidence for 16:17-20 being dependent not just on episodes,
>>but even on phrasing, from Acts.
>
>Things now will start getting interesting, since I now return directly
>to text critical aspects of this situation. I let the discussion run
>its course without stating the obvious, and my one real question still
>is whether anyone ever bothers to consult a textual apparatus before
>drawing conclusions.

Yes, we do consult the textual apparatus. I had already suspected variant
readings on this phrase before I made my initial reply several days ago.
I had suspected variant readings in the mss because (1) refs to Jesus are
notorious for slight alterations by adding/omitting words such as Lord
and Christ; and (2) the refs to "Lord" and "Lord Jesus" are so out of
character for Mk 1:1-16:8 I suspected that some scribe might have
attempted to alter them, even though Mark was such a neglected Gospel in
interpretive history and many scribes might not pick up on the slight
change in style. The variation unit is also fully apparent in the
differences in English translations (KJV vs. NRSV) yet alone Greek texts
(TR and NA27). Therefore, even if you use a Bible software program which
does not include a textual apparatus the variation unit is apparent. Even
though you erroneously assumed I had no awareness of the variation unit,
in fact, I was fully aware of it, but unlike you I was in agreement with
the NA27 textual decision. Just because you personally want to change
many of the textual decisions in the NA27 and others of us are in
agreement with the majority of them does *not* mean that we are not
*aware* of the textual variants. And no, this does *not* mean that I
agree with all the decisions of the NA27/UBS4. I do not consider the
NA27/UBS4 to be the new TR that needs no re-evaluating. We must all
constantly re-evaluate the evidence. Just because I agreed with the
UBS4/NA27 on this instance does *not* mean that I have not done my TC
work as you assume. Personally, I wasn't going to mention the variant
because the external evidence seems pretty decisive and it wouldn't help
me to mention the variant reading. I knew you might, and you did
(although in a derogatory manner I wasn't expecting). BTW, there are
quite a few other lines of thought on this entire issue that I haven't
mentioned that I was expecting you to mention, but that does *not* mean
that I am not aware of those. I'll let you bring those up instead of
arguing your case against myself for you.
>
>Here is the summary of the evidence, compiled from the Nestle27 
>apparatus at the pertinent point:
>
>Mk. 16:19
>
>Nestle27 -- O MEN OUN KURIOS IHSOUS
>Variant1  --  O MEN           KURIOS IHSOUS
>Variant2  --  O MEN OUN KURIOS
>Variant3  --  O MEN OUN KURIOS IHSOUS CRISTOS
>
>Nestle27 is supported by K Delta f1 f13 33 565 579 892c 1241 1424
>	2427 L-2211 al it vg-cl sy cop Ir-lat.
>
>Variant1 (omitting OUN but retaining KURIOS IHSOUS) is supported by
>	C* L W L-844 pc
>
>Variant2 (omitting IHSOUS) is supported by "M" (= Byz) Dsupp Theta Psi
>	it-l vg-st vg-ww
>
>Variant3 (adding CRISTOS post IHSOUS) is supported by W it-o bo-mss
>
>So, while everyone seemed so intent on making a case from KURIOS IHSOUS,
>the Byzantine Majority reading **totally omitted** the key word IHSOUS,
>and it therefore was _never_ pertinent to the discussion of
>authenticity from the perspective of those who were arguing in favor of
>the long ending (if anyone favoring the long ending thinks otherwise, 
>let me know).
>
>The fact that the editors of N27 chose to claim it as part of the
>"original" form for the long ending does not militate against this
>point, unless one first concurs with their decision on reasonable
>internal grounds.  Very few who claim long-ending-authenticity would
>concur with their decision; most would prefer to follow the Byzantine
>majority at this point. If so, the point of the KURIOS IHSOUS reading
>is moot.

Au contraire. You assume wrongly. Just because one feels 16:9-20 is not
authentic, does *not* mean that 16:9-20 is not *early.* It's appearance
in the church fathers alone indicates an early date and a *pre-Byzantine*
date, I might add. Therefore, the NA27 presentation of the 16:9-20 should
*not* be based on the Byzantine majority reading alone because that is
not necessarily the "weightiest" evidence for the original form of the
longer reading. Mk 16:9-20 is not a Byzantine addition, it occured at an
early stage and therefore, the evidence for the original form of the
longer ending must be based on the "weightiest" evidence.

>Why should this be the case?  Basic principles of internal evidence. 
>Had the longer term KURIOS IHSOUS been original to the long ending, it
>is unlikely that _any_ scribe would have omitted it, save by accident.
>Homoioteleuton _is_ possible from "KS IS" to "KS", but while scattered
MSS
>might accidentally omit, the likelihood that virtually _all_ MSS would
>do so and/or _never_ have the error corrected is highly unlikely.
>
>Rather, the addition of IHSOUS in less than two dozen Greek MSS and
>some versional witnesses reflecting Byzantine, Alexandrian, 
>"Caesarean" and Western diversity (not always in line with the text of
their
>respective texttypes) seems to point to relatively independent 
>instances of the typical "pious expansion" so often charged against the
Byzantine
>majority. The addition of CRISTOS to IHSOUS in the similarly diverse
>witness group W it-o bo-mss demonstrates an even more extended "pious
>expansion".
>
>If this is valid, then all the claims regarding KURIOS IHSOUS as a
>"non-Markan term" which would prove inauthenticity fall by the 
>wayside.

If the external evidence was evenly divided, your internal arguments
would make more sense: the shorter being original (KURIOS) being changed
to the longer (KURIOS IHSOUS). But that certainly is not a hard and fast
rule, especially when it comes to variants in names since there are other
factors at work that take precedence over the one reading being longer
and another being shorter (cf. IHSOUS TON BARABBAN in Mt 27:16-17 where
the prefered reading of NA27 is the longer). Homoioteleuton is certainly
possible as you mentioned, but you dismissed it to quickly. If such an
unintentional error (KSIS to KS) occurred early enough, there would not
seem grounds for later scribes to intentionally correct the text,
especially since it would have *entered* the Byzantine stream in the form
of KS not KSIS.

I don't think the internal evidence for opting for KURIOS over KURIOS
IHSOUS in Mk 16:19 is conclusive in either direction. What seems to
indicate the choice for KURIOS IHSOUS over IHSOUS is the *external*
evidence which you too quickly dismissed. The combined witness of K Delta
f1 f13 33 565 579 892c 1241 1424 2427 L-2211 al it vg-cl sy cop Ir-lat is
pretty substantial and early support for KURIOS IHSOUS, especially when
you realize that Sinaiticus and Vaticanus render no evidence for this
variation unit since they omit the entirety of 16:9-20.

Therefore, I feel that there are reasonable grounds to argue for the
stylistic evidence of "Lord Jesus" pertaining to Mk 16:9-20. Maurice, if
you really feel the entire stylistic argument of "Lord Jesus" was a moot
point due to your preference for the variant reading "Lord", then why did
you respond ad nauseum to all these stylistic arguments? Or was it that
*you* returned to the textual apparatus and discovered _ex eventu_ that
the variant existed :-)

Jeff Cate, Ph.D.
Associate Professor of Christian Studies
California Baptist University
Riverside, California 92508

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From owner-tc-list@shemesh.scholar.emory.edu  Sat Oct 31 12:59:36 1998
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An excursus of sorts:

It is probably little known, but interesting that MS 2145 of the 12th
century contains a *third* form of the ending of Mark, this one
specifically "cribbed" from the long ending. It serves as a good
example of what one might expect in a summary precis. (Interestingly,
this MS is like virtually all others in containing without question the
long ending in its usual location. This summary is taken from the two
leaves which _precede_ the Markan title page).

For reference purposes: MS 2145 is a vellum MS completed 23 Feb 1144
by the scribe John, containing the four gospels, lacking Mt. 1:1-9:28.
The PA is missing from its main text; added in margin by later hand.

(Information and summary quotation taken from Kurt Treu, _Die
Griechischen Handschriften des Neuen Testaments in der UdSSR_
[Berlin: Akademie-Verlag, 1966], pp.92-95).

Here is MS 2145's summary of the Markan long ending:

ANASTAS O CRISTOS WFQH MARIA, AF HS TA Z DAIMONIA EXEBALEN. EKEINH EIPE
TOIS MAQHTAIS. OI DE HPISTHSAN. EPEITA WFQH EN TH ODW TOIS DUSIN, EITA
TOIS ENDEKA. KAI WNEIDISE THN APISTIAN AUTWN, KAI APESTEILEN AUTOUS
KHRUSSEIN KAI BAPTIZEIN KAI SHMEIA POIEIN. KAI META TAUTA ANELHFQH. KAI
TOUTO TO TELOS ECEI TO KATA MARKON EUAGGELION.

The summary is good, short, and reasonable; and if one had not seen the
long ending, this precis nevertheless would fairly accurately reflect
that ending. But what is more pertinent to the discussion of "cribbing"
and borrowing from the other gospels in the supposed creation of the
long ending is the amount of paraphrase found in this precis versus the
amount of identity of wording.

How was this summary created from the long ending? Certainly not
directly, but with careful and creative paraphrasing, locking in to a
few words here and there from the original source.  Note below the
entire long ending with the only materials capitalized being those
found in the MS 2145 summary (allowing Z = EPTA):

------------------------------------------------------------

9 ANASTAS de prwi prwth sabbatou efanh prwton MARIA th magdalhnh AF
HS ekbeblhkei EPTA DAIMONIA. 10 EKEINH poreuqeisa aphggeilen TOIS met
autou genomenois penqousin kai klaiousin 11 kakeinoi akousantes oti
zh kai eqeaqh up auths HPISTHSAN 12 meta de tauta DUSIN ex autwn
peripatousin efanerwqh en etera morfh poreuomenois eis agron
13 kakeinoi apelqontes aphggeilan tois loipois oude ekeinois episteusan
14 usteron anakeimenois autois TOIS ENDEKA efanerwqh KAI WNEIDISE THN
APISTIAN AUTWN kai sklhrokardian oti tois qeasamenois auton eghgermenon
ouk episteusan 15 kai eipen autois poreuqentes eis ton kosmon apanta
khruxate to euaggelion pash th ktisei 16 o pisteusas KAI baptisqeis
swqhsetai o de apisthsas katakriqhsetai 17 SHMEIA de tois pisteusasin
tauta parakolouqhsei en tw onomati mou daimonia ekbalousin glwssais
lalhsousin kainais 18 ofeis arousin kan qanasimon ti piwsin ou mh
autous blayh epi arrwstous ceiras epiqhsousin kai kalws exousin
19 o men oun kurios META to lalhsai autois ANELHFQH eis ton ouranon
kai ekaqisen ek dexiwn tou qeou 20 ekeinoi de exelqontes ekhruxan
pantacou tou kuriou sunergountos kai ton logon bebaiountos dia twn
epakolouqountwn shmeiwn amhn
-----------------------------------------------------------

A total of 21 words are identical out of 55 in the precis itself (38%)
and out of (I think I counted correctly) 166 in the actual long ending
(12%).

What is of significance here is that so few words have direct parallel
with the material being summarized. True, some other words merely
appear in different form (e.g. the summary has KHRUSSEIN KAI BAPTIZEIN
while the actual text has "khruxate" and "baptisqeis" [widely
separated]). But even if the near parallels were noted, the summary
still would bear little direct parallel with the whole of what is being
"cribbed".

Applying these observations to the long ending of Mark as it stands,
what becomes significant is this: _some_ episodes in the long ending
(e.g. the road to Emmaus parallel) might fit in well with the type of
summary pattern demonstrated in MS 2145. But other passages not only
remain longer than would be expected in a precis summary, but they also
have many more direct verbal parallels to wording found in the other
gospels from which they are supposedly "cribbed" (these are not given 
here, but if need be, I will be happy to demonstrate).

Add to this the question of all the "new" material being added to the
long ending which has NO parallel and which properly should not have
appeared within a summary precis and the question of source or motive
becomes significant.  Finally, the idea of a summary pastiche loosely
compiled from within Acts and the Epistles regarding the ascension and
sitting at the right hand of God seems to go far beyond the normal
style of a mere summary, if the pattern seen in MS 2145 is any
indication of what really occurs in the preparation of such.

Note also that the so-called "shorter ending" is not actually a precis
summary at all. Notice its text in comparison to the long ending with
identical words capitalized (some of these quite generously):

panta DE ta parhggelmena TOIS peri ton petron suntomws exhggeilan. META
DE TAUTA kai autos o ihsous apo anatolhs kai acri dusews exapesteilen
di autwn to ieron kai afqarton khrugma ths aiwniou swthrias.

(5 words out of 33 in the short ending identical to words appearing in
the long ending = 15%;if counted against the 166 words in the long
ending itself, the parallel is a dismal 3%; compared to this the 38%
and 12% respectively from the MS 2145 precis is a huge amount).

Interestingly there are some terms in the shorter ending which come
close to the precis summary in MS 2145, e.g. EXAPESTEILEN vs 2145's
APESTEILEN. But the extremely low percentage of parallel identity in
the shorter ending as compared to the 2145 precis here tends to
indicate that the shorter ending was NOT intended as a precis, but as a
_substitute_ for the long ending (I have a theory regarding this, but
that will have to wait for a paper I am preparing)

Just a few random thoughts....feel free to differ.

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Leaving out the much longer body preceding material (which deserves a
more detailed response, Jeff Cate wrote: 

>if you really feel the entire stylistic argument of "Lord Jesus" was a 
>moot point due to your preference for the variant reading "Lord", then 
>why did you respond ad nauseum to all these stylistic arguments? Or 
>was it that *you* returned to the textual apparatus and discovered _ex 
>eventu_ that the variant existed :-)

Since I have the electronic Byzantine Textform ever before me as I edited
it, I do know what the Byzantine readings happen to be :-).  My responses
were structured to  allow (for the sake of argument) that the "Lord
Jesus" phrase  was the "original" reading in what was presumed to be a
"non-authentic" long ending, neither of which views I hold.  

Had I not presented my case within that framework, the point I was making
regarding the inapplicability of the phrase in Mark to either normative
Markan usage or to Lukan dependency would have had no hearing, since I
would have been viewed as merely  taking potshots from outside. In order
for a proper debate to occur, one has to at points suspend judgment and
assume the hypothetical validity of the point under discussion, as well
as state the case in a manner which the opposing side would consider
valid.  

My views regarding the Byzantine text and the authenticity of the long
ending is (or should be) clear to all. But whether I would or would not
agree with the authenticity of the phrase in Mk 16:19 was *not* pertinent
to the point that I was trying to make, viz., that the phrase (if
genuine) neither established nor disproved Markan authenticity, and so I
continued the discussion primarily to show that within the argumentative
framework the point being adduced was invalid in and of itself,
regardless of what other views might exist outside the immediate scope of
the debate. 

I hope that clarifies.

==============================================================
Maurice A. Robinson, Ph. D.
Professor of Greek and New Testament
Southeastern Baptist Theological Seminary
Wake Forest, North Carolina, USA


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